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AAPC CPC Exam Overview:

Certification Vendor:AAPC
Exam Name:Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam
Exam Number:CPC
Exam Price:USD 499
Exam Duration:240 minutes
Certificate Validity Period:2 Years (requires continuing education to maintain)
Passing Score:70%
Real Exam Qty:100
Available Languages:English
Related Certifications:CPC-A
Exam Format:Multiple Choice
Sample Questions:AAPC CPC Sample Questions
Exam Way:Online (Online Proctored or In-Person at Testing Centers)
Pre Condition:None required for exam (though AAPC recommends medical terminology/anatomy training)
Official Syllabus URL:https://www.aapc.com/certification/cpc

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AAPC CPC Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Digestive System: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and evaluates the coding of surgeries and procedures involving the oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, intestines, liver, pancreas, and related organs. Understanding endoscopic procedures is particularly critical here.
Topic 2
  • Accurate ICD-10-CM Coding: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and focuses on the precise assignment of diagnosis codes using the ICD-10-CM system. The goal is to ensure accurate representation of patient conditions, proper sequencing, and a clear linkage between diagnoses and services.
Topic 3
  • Hemic & Lymphatic Systems, Mediastinum, Diaphragm: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and includes procedures related to the spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow, as well as surgical interventions in the mediastinum and diaphragm. Coders must differentiate procedures by region and system accurately.
Topic 4
  • Female Reproductive System and Maternity Care & Delivery: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and evaluates coding accuracy for gynecological and obstetric procedures. It includes deliveries, antepartum care, cesarean sections, and surgical procedures involving female reproductive anatomy.
Topic 5
  • Anesthesia: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and involves coding anesthesia services based on surgical site, complexity, and time. It tests the understanding of anesthesia modifiers and the importance of linking anesthesia codes with the correct primary procedures.
Topic 6
  • Special Senses (Ocular and Auditory): This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers the coding of procedures related to the eyes and ears. Topics include surgeries on the cornea, retina, and middle
  • inner ear, as well as related diagnostic procedures.
Topic 7
  • Integumentary System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and covers procedures related to the skin and related structures. Topics include excisions, biopsies, repairs, and destruction services, focusing on accurate code selection and modifier usage for integumentary interventions.
Topic 8
  • Respiratory System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and evaluates the ability to code procedures involving the nose, sinuses, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Attention is given to services like endoscopies, excisions, and resections within the respiratory tract.
Topic 9
  • Musculoskeletal System: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and focuses on coding procedures involving bones, joints, muscles, and tendons. It covers surgeries, reductions, arthroscopies, and fracture treatments, emphasizing accurate mapping of procedures to anatomical areas.
Topic 10
  • Urinary System and Male Genital System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and assesses understanding of procedures on kidneys, bladder, ureters, prostate, and male reproductive organs. Proper use of CPT codes for surgical and diagnostic interventions is tested.
Topic 11
  • Radiology: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and focuses on diagnostic imaging procedures including X-rays, CT scans, MRIs, ultrasounds, and nuclear medicine. It emphasizes proper selection of codes based on anatomical site and modality used.
Topic 12
  • Introduction to CPT®, HCPCS Level II, and Modifiers: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and introduces candidates to CPT® coding for procedures, HCPCS Level II for supplies and services, and the correct use of modifiers. It helps learners distinguish between different code sets and understand their place in medical billing.

AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam Sample Questions (Q283-Q288):

NEW QUESTION # 283
View MR 003396
MR 003396
Operative Report
Preoperative Diagnosis: Acute MI, severe left main arteriosclerotic coronary artery disease Postoperative Diagnosis: Acute MI, severe left main arteriosclerotic coronary artery disease Procedure Performed: Placement of an intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) right common femoral artery Description of Procedure: Patient's right groin was prepped and draped in the usual sterile fashion. Right common femoral artery is found, and an incision is made over the artery exposing it. The artery is opened transversely, and the tip of the balloon catheter was placed in the right common femoral artery. The balloon pump had good waveform. The balloon pump catheter is secured to his skin after local anesthesia of 2 cc of 1% Xylocaine is used to numb the area. The balloon pump is secured with a 0-silk suture. The patient has sterile dressing placed. The patient tolerated the procedure. There were no complications.
What CPT coding is reported for this case?

Answer: D

Explanation:
The procedure involved the placement of an intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) through the right common femoral artery for a patient with acute MI and severe left main arteriosclerotic coronary artery disease.
Procedure Description:
Placement of an intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP).
Right common femoral artery approach.
Confirmation of good waveform and securement of the catheter.
CPT Coding:
33975: Insertion of intra-aortic balloon assist device, percutaneous.
AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year).
CPT Assistant for detailed coding guidelines on cardiac procedures.


NEW QUESTION # 284
A 56-year-old female patient with a history of degenerative disc disease at levels T2-T3 and T4-T5 underwent a surgical repair procedure. Two surgeons will be working together as primary surgeons Surgeon X: Carried out the anterior exposure of the spine and mobilized the great vessels, assisted Dr. Z. and performed the closure.
Surgeon Z: Performed a minimal anterior discectomy and fusion at T2-T3 and T4-T5 levels using an anterior interbody technique and solely performed utilizing a structural allograft.
What is the CPT coding for the two surgeons?

Answer: D

Explanation:
The case describes two primary surgeons working together, which supports modifier 62 (co-surgeons) on the spine fusion/discectomy codes.
22556 = primary level anterior thoracic discectomy and fusion (T2-T3)
22585 = each additional thoracic level (T4-T5)
20931 = structural allograft (reported by the surgeon who solely performed/placed the structural allograft, per the statement-Surgeon Z) Why D fits best:
Surgeon X performed the approach/exposure and closure and assisted the primary surgeon → reports the co-surgeon spine procedure codes (22556-62, 22585-62).
Surgeon Z performed the discectomy/fusion and solely performed utilizing a structural allograft → reports 22556-62, 22585-62, plus 20931.
Options with -51 are not correct here (and add-on/related reporting logic in CPT does not support the way -51 is applied in those options).


NEW QUESTION # 285
A patient arrives with stridor and in respiratory distress. The provider performs a micro laryngoscopy using a Parson's laryngoscope and magnifying telescope. A bronchoscopy was also performed using a 2.5 Stortz bronchoscope. The findings include subglottic web and stenosis with laryngeal edema suggestive of reflux. There was also significant collapse of the trachea at the carina and into the main bronchi bilaterally.
What CPT coding is reported?

Answer: B

Explanation:
1. Procedure and CPT Code Selection:
The provider performed both a bronchoscopy and a microlaryngoscopy to evaluate the patient's airway due to respiratory distress and stridor.
Code 31622 is used for a diagnostic bronchoscopy, which includes the inspection of the trachea, carina, and bronchial structures. Since the bronchoscopy was diagnostic and no additional therapeutic procedures were performed, this is the appropriate code.
Code 31526 is for direct laryngoscopy with the use of an operating microscope or telescope (microlaryngoscopy). This code is appropriate given the use of a Parson's laryngoscope and magnifying telescope to inspect the larynx.
2. Modifier 51:
Modifier 51 is added to 31526 to indicate that it was performed in conjunction with another procedure (31622, bronchoscopy). Modifier 51 denotes multiple procedures without the necessity of a separate incision.
3. Exclusion of Code 69990:
Code 69990 is used for the use of an operating microscope in microsurgery but is not coded separately when the procedure (such as microlaryngoscopy) already includes visualization with a microscope or telescope as part of the CPT descriptor. Thus, 69990 is not separately reported in this scenario, per CPT guidelines.
4. AAPC and CPT Coding Guidelines:
The guidelines specify that when visualization or microlaryngoscopy is inherently part of the procedure (as in 31526), 69990 should not be billed separately. Also, the use of Modifier 51 for multiple procedures in the same session is appropriate.
Therefore, the verified answer, following the CPT and AAPC coding rules, is A. 31622, 31526-51.


NEW QUESTION # 286
Refer to the supplemental information when answering this question:
View MR 874276
What E/M code is reported?

Answer: B

Explanation:
To accurately code this emergency department visit, we need to assess the three key components: history, examination, and medical decision making (MDM).
History:
The documentation supports an expanded problem-focused history. This includes a chief complaint, a brief history of present illness (HPI), a review of systems (ROS) with pertinent positives and negatives, and a past medical history.
Examination:
The examination is also expanded problem-focused. The physician focused on the relevant systems (constitutional, HENT, respiratory) and documented specific findings related to the chief complaint (appears tired).
Medical Decision Making:
The MDM complexity is low. The physician is assessing a new problem (shortness of breath and weakness) with a low level of risk. No further testing or treatment is documented in this encounter.
Based on these components, 99283 is the most appropriate code.
Why other options are incorrect:
99282: Requires a problem-focused history and examination, which is less comprehensive than what was documented.
99284 and 99285: Require a higher level of MDM (moderate or high complexity) and/or a more detailed examination. The documentation doesn't support this level of service.
Reference:
CPT Codes 99281-99285: Emergency department visits
1995 and 1997 Documentation Guidelines for Evaluation and Management Services: These guidelines provide detailed criteria for selecting the appropriate E/M code based on history, examination, and MDM.
AAPC Coder's Desk Reference: This resource provides detailed information on coding guidelines and procedures.


NEW QUESTION # 287
View MR 002395
MR 002395
Operative Report
Pre-operative Diagnosis: Acute rotator cuff tear
Post-operative Diagnosis: Acute rotator cuff tear, synovitis
Procedures:
1) Rotator cuff repair
2) Biceps Tenodesis
3) Claviculectomy
4) Coracoacromial ligament release
Indication: Rotator cuff injury of a 32-year-old male, sustained while playing soccer.
Findings: Complete tear of the right rotator cuff, synovitis, impingement.
Procedure: The patient was prepared for surgery and placed in left lateral decubitus position. Standard posterior arthroscopy portals were made followed by an anterior-superior portal. Diagnostic arthroscopy was performed. Significant synovitis was carefully debrided. There was a full-thickness upper 3rd subscapularis tear, which was repaired. The lesser tuberosity was debrided back to bleeding healthy bone and a Mitek 4.5 mm helix anchor was placed in the lesser tuberosity. Sutures were passed through the subcapulans in a combination of horizontal mattress and simple interrupted fashion and then tied. There was a partial-thickness tearing of the long head of the biceps. The biceps were released and then anchored in the intertubercular groove with a screw. There was a large anterior acromial spur with subacromial impingement. A CA ligament was released and acromioplasty was performed. Attention was then directed to the supraspinatus tendon tear. The tear was V-shaped and measured approximately 2.5 cm from anterior to posterior. Two Smith & Nephew PEEK anchors were used for the medial row utilizing Healicoil anchors. Side-to-side stitches were placed. One set of suture tape from each of the medial anchors was then placed through a laterally placed Mitek helix PEEK knotless anchor which was fully inserted after tensioning the tapes. A solid repair was obtained. Next there were severe degenerative changes at the AC joint of approximately 8 to 10 mm. The distal clavicle was resected taking care to preserve the superior AC joint capsule. The shoulder was thoroughly lavaged. The instruments were removed and the incisions were closed in routine fashion. Sterile dressing was applied. The patient was transferred to recovery in stable condition.
What CPT coding is reported for this case?

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 288
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