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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Topic 1: Physician Activities | - Communication
|
| Topic 2: Dimensions of Care | - Health Promotion and Illness Prevention
|
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NEW QUESTION # 13
A 31-year-old man presents to the office with concerns about his heart. Three months ago, his father died of a myocardial infarction at age 58 years. He states that since the death of his father, he has experienced episodes in which his heart will start racing, causing him to feel short of breath, dizzy, and nauseous. He is afraid that he will die during these episodes. Findings from a physical examination, electrocardiogram, Holter monitoring, echocardiogram, and complete blood count are normal. Serum electrolyte level, troponin level, and thyroid function studies are all within normal limits. Which one of the following options is the most appropriate?
Answer: D
Explanation:
This patient presents with panic-like somatic symptoms triggered by bereavement. Normal investigations rule out cardiac pathology. Grief therapy is appropriate as the underlying stressor is unresolved grief and anxiety.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, Grief and Anxiety Disorders:
"Bereavement-related anxiety and somatization are common. Grief counseling can help reduce somatic and psychological symptoms when medical causes are ruled out." MCCQE1 Objectives - Psychiatry > Anxiety and Bereavement:
"Candidates should recognize psychological sequelae of grief, including panic and health anxiety, and provide appropriate psychological support." Metoprolol (C) is not indicated without confirmed cardiac cause. Lorazepam (B) may offer short-term relief but does not address the underlying grief. Stress testing (A) is unnecessary with repeated normal investigations.
NEW QUESTION # 14
A 59-year-old woman comes to the office because her 48-year-old sister was recently diagnosed with cervical cancer. Your patient thinks her mother may have also had cervical cancer. A Papanicolaou (Pap) test performed 16 months ago had normal results, as did all previous Pap tests. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: E
Explanation:
For women aged 25-69 years who have had adequate negative screening, the recommendation is to repeat cervical cytology (Pap test) every 3 years, regardless of family history. Cervical cancer is caused primarily by HPV infection, not hereditary genetics. Family history does not alter the screening interval.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, Cervical Cancer Screening Section:
"Routine screening with Pap test is recommended every 3 years in women aged 25-69 who have had three consecutive negative tests. Family history of cervical cancer does not modify the screening interval." MCCQE1 Objectives - Obstetrics and Gynecology > Cancer Screening:
"Candidates must apply population-based cervical cancer screening guidelines. Family history is not a risk modifier for screening frequency in cervical cancer." Options A and B are inappropriate as they increase screening frequency without indication. HPV testing (D) or colposcopy (E) are not recommended without abnormal cytology.
NEW QUESTION # 15
A 26-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 2, aborta 0, has just delivered a full-term newborn via spontaneous vaginal delivery after 4 hours of labor. Following oxytocin administration and placental expulsion, there continues to be a steady trickle of bright red blood from her vagina. On examination, the placenta is intact and the fundus feels firm. Her vital signs are within normal range.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
In postpartum hemorrhage with a firm uterine fundus and intact placenta, a common cause is trauma such as a vaginal or cervical tear. Uterine atony (A) typically presents with a boggy uterus. The absence of systemic instability or coagulopathy makes options D and E less likely.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Obstetrics, Postpartum Hemorrhage:
"Continued bleeding despite a firm fundus and intact placenta should raise suspicion for genital tract trauma, especially cervical or vaginal lacerations." MCCQE1 Objectives - Obstetrics > Postpartum Complications:
"Candidates must differentiate causes of postpartum hemorrhage and identify when bleeding is due to trauma vs uterine atony."
NEW QUESTION # 16
A 39-year-old woman comes to the office for a periodic health examination. She reports that her father had a recent diagnosis of breast cancer (at age 62 years) and that a paternal aunt had ovarian cancer in her early 40s.
The results of mammography are normal. Which one of the following is the most appropriate recommendation for this patient?
Answer: D
Explanation:
This patient has a family history of both male breast cancer (father) and early-onset ovarian cancer (aunt), which are red flags for BRCA1/2 mutations. Genetic counseling and BRCA testing are the appropriate next steps to stratify cancer risk and guide screening and prevention.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Oncology, "Breast Cancer Risk" Section:
"BRCA testing is recommended for individuals with a strong family history of breast or ovarian cancer, particularly if involving male relatives or early-onset cases." MCCQE1 Objectives (Population Health > 97-5: Screening and Prevention):
"Candidates must identify high-risk individuals who require genetic counseling and screening beyond population guidelines." Tamoxifen (A) and prophylactic mastectomy (E) are only considered after confirming mutation status. Annual screening starting at 50 (D) is for average-risk women. Fine-needle sampling (C) is not a screening tool.
NEW QUESTION # 17
A 48-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of regular, heavy menstrual flow. She has a BMI of 54, poorly controlled type 2 diabetes, and obstructive sleep apnea. Laboratory results are as follows:
Hemoglobin: 82 g/L (123-157)
Ferritin: 6 µg/L (11-307)
Endometrial biopsy: Absence of hyperplasia or malignancy
Transvaginal ultrasound:
* Uterus: 12 cm × 8.2 cm × 6 cm
* Intramural fibroids
* Endometrial thickness: 14 mm
* Ovaries: Normal
Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (LNG-IUS) is the first-line treatment for heavy menstrual bleeding, particularly in women with risk factors for endometrial hyperplasia and contraindications to systemic hormones (e.g., morbid obesity, diabetes, OSA).
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, "Abnormal Uterine Bleeding" Section:
"The LNG-IUS is highly effective in reducing menstrual bleeding and improving hemoglobin levels. It is particularly recommended in women with obesity, chronic anovulation, or contraindications to estrogen." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics and Gynecology > 82-1: Abnormal Uterine Bleeding):
"Candidates must consider the LNG-IUS as a preferred non-surgical treatment for chronic heavy menstrual bleeding when endometrial pathology has been excluded." Oral contraceptives (C) are not first-line in morbid obesity due to increased thromboembolic risk. Cyclic medroxyprogesterone (D) is less effective than LNG-IUS. Hysterectomy (A) is definitive but should follow failure of conservative therapy.
NEW QUESTION # 18
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