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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Physician Activities | - Communication
|
| Dimensions of Care | - Health Promotion and Illness Prevention
|
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質問 # 170
There are many expenses which are considered part of providing care to patients. Under Canadian legislation, which one of the following is an acceptable means of covering these costs?
正解：E
解説：
Physicians in Canada may charge patients for uninsured services (e.g., completion of forms, cosmetic procedures, some travel-related vaccines), but they may not charge extra for insured services or preferential access. Doing so violates the Canada Health Act, which mandates accessibility and universality of insured services.
Toronto Notes 2023 - ELOM, Health Care System:
"Physicians may charge for uninsured services but may not charge block fees for insured services, nor can they charge for expedited access to insured services." MCCQE1 Objectives - ELOM > Health Policy and System:
"Candidates must recognize practices that violate the principles of publicly funded health care, including charging for insured services or access premiums." Option A is not permitted under law. Options B, D, and E involve insured services (e.g., home visits, after- hours care) and cannot be billed directly to patients.
質問 # 171
A 26-year-old man presents with pain, numbness, and weakness in his right upper extremity. He works as a computer programmer, and his BMI is 32. Symptoms have worsened since he started spending more time on the keyboard. He reports that his right hand feels clumsier while he is typing. Physical examination reveals mild weakness in the intrinsic muscles of that hand, with a positive Tinel sign at the ulnar nerve. Which one of the following is the best next step?
正解：E
解説：
This patient presents with symptoms and signs of ulnar neuropathy-most likely at the elbow (cubital tunnel).
Weakness in the intrinsic hand muscles and positive Tinel sign at the ulnar nerve are suggestive. Nerve conduction studies are the gold standard to confirm and localize the lesion.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Neurology, "Peripheral Nerve Disorders":
"In cases of suspected mononeuropathy such as ulnar nerve compression, nerve conduction studies confirm the diagnosis and localize the lesion." MCCQE1 Objectives (Medicine > Neurology > 35-2):
"Candidates should identify and investigate focal mononeuropathies using nerve conduction studies to confirm the diagnosis and location." Splinting (A, C) may help after diagnosis. Physiotherapy (B) is adjunctive. MRI (D) is not the first-line investigation.
質問 # 172
You receive a note from a pharmacist about your 82-year-old patient who is taking oxycodone extended- release 20 mg 3 times daily for spinal stenosis. The pharmacist suggests that you consider tapering the medication. Your patient has been taking his current dosage for 1 year. When you saw him a month ago, he was functioning well with no adverse effects from the medication. Which one of the following is the best next step?
正解：D
解説：
Long-term opioid therapy requires ongoing assessment of benefits, risks, function, adverse effects, and safety, particularly in older adults. MCCQE objectives emphasize regular reassessment before making changes to chronic controlled medications. Although the pharmacist has appropriately raised concern about prolonged opioid use, the patient was reported one month ago to be functioning well without adverse effects.
The appropriate next step is to reassess the patient directly-including pain control, functional status, cognition, fall risk, constipation, signs of misuse, and overall goals of care-before altering therapy.
Automatic dose reduction without evaluation may destabilize pain control. Immediate referral to a specialist is unnecessary if the patient is stable and well managed. Adjunct therapies such as physiotherapy may be considered but should not replace proper reassessment.
Shared decision-making is essential. If reassessment reveals limited benefit, adverse effects, or safety concerns, a gradual taper can then be discussed. Clinical decisions regarding opioids should be individualized rather than based solely on duration of use.
質問 # 173
An otherwise healthy 21-year-old college student is brought to the Emergency Department after falling from the rooftop terrace of a night club. A grade III splenic laceration measuring 3 cm is identified on computed tomography scan. You elect to manage the patient non-operatively with close monitoring, repeat examinations and hemoglobin levels. A repeat computed tomography at 48 hours shows no deterioration. Diet is resumed and over the next few days, the patient resumes ambulation. Which one of the following do you discuss with your patient prior to discharge?
正解：E
解説：
This patient has a grade III splenic laceration successfully managed non-operatively. MCCQE surgical objectives emphasize that in hemodynamically stable patients, non-operative management (NOM) is standard for many blunt splenic injuries to preserve splenic function. Because the spleen remains intact, vaccination against encapsulated organisms is not required (this is indicated after splenectomy or functional asplenia).
Prior to discharge, the most important counseling point is activity restriction to reduce the risk of delayed splenic rupture. Patients are advised to avoid vigorous physical activity, contact sports, and heavy lifting for approximately 3 months , depending on injury severity and follow-up imaging protocols. This allows adequate healing of splenic parenchyma.
Routine interval splenectomy is not indicated after successful NOM. Angiography with embolization is reserved for ongoing bleeding or vascular blush on imaging. Weekly hemoglobin checks are not routinely required if the patient is clinically stable.
Thus, counseling regarding avoidance of vigorous activity is the key discharge recommendation.
質問 # 174
A 29-year-old woman presents with vaginal spotting after 6 weeks of amenorrhea. She is asymptomatic otherwise. Serum #-hCG is 2150 IU/L, and pelvic ultrasound shows an empty uterus. She has been trying to conceive for 7 months. Which one of the following is the best next step?
正解：C
解説：
An empty uterus with #-hCG >1500-2000 IU/L raises concern for a pregnancy of unknown location (PUL), including the possibility of ectopic pregnancy. However, the patient is hemodynamically stable and asymptomatic. In such cases, the best initial step is to repeat serum #-hCG in 48 hours to assess the rise or fall of hCG levels.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Obstetrics, "First Trimester Bleeding":
"If #-hCG >1500 IU/L and no intrauterine pregnancy is visualized on ultrasound, repeat #-hCG in 48 hours to determine rise or decline. A suboptimal rise (less than 66%) suggests ectopic pregnancy." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics > 79-1: Early Pregnancy Complications):
"In a patient with early pregnancy bleeding, the candidate must interpret quantitative #-hCG trends to distinguish ectopic pregnancy, miscarriage, or viable intrauterine pregnancy." Immediate administration of methotrexate or invasive procedures such as D&C or laparoscopy are not appropriate until further diagnostic clarification is obtained.
質問 # 175
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ちなみに、Xhs1991 MCCQEの一部をクラウドストレージからダウンロードできます：https://drive.google.com/open?id=1kXEeqBSkqEjyE_98fUKTbdqub2_0m1XK