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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Patient Treatment and Transport | 20–24% | - Patient packaging and transport procedures - Medication administration and protocols - Communication with receiving facilities - Medical and trauma care interventions |
| Secondary Assessment | 5–9% | - Vital signs and monitoring - Symptom assessment and history taking - Focused history and physical exam |
| EMS Operations | 10–14% | - Incident command and multiple-casualty situations - Documentation and legal aspects - EMS system roles and responsibilities - Emergency vehicle operations and safety |
| Primary Assessment | 39–43% | - Identification and management of life-threatening conditions - Airway, breathing, and circulation management - General patient impression and priority determination - Initial patient assessment |
| Scene Size-Up and Safety | 15–19% | - Hazard recognition and management - Scene assessment and safety protocols - Mechanism of injury / nature of illness |
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NEW QUESTION # 121
A 30-year-old patient is injured in a motor vehicle collision. The patient cannot move their diaphragm, and they are apneic. In which of the following locations should the EMT suspect the spinal injury occurred?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The diaphragm is innervated by the phrenic nerve, which originates from spinal nerve roots C3-C5.
NREMT teaching highlights the phrase: "C3, 4, and 5 keep the diaphragm alive." Option A (C4) is correct because an injury at or above this level can paralyze the diaphragm, resulting in apnea and immediate respiratory failure.
Option B (T1) and C (T3) affect intercostal muscles but not the diaphragm.
Option D (L4) affects lower extremity function only.
NREMT emphasizes that high cervical spine injuries are immediately life-threatening due to loss of ventilatory control.
NEW QUESTION # 122
An 86-year-old patient involved in a motor vehicle collision struck a knee on the dashboard. What injuries are most associated with the knee impacting the dashboard? Select the two answer options that are correct.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
The correct answers are B. Femur fracture and E. Posterior hip dislocation.
This mechanism is classically known as a "dashboard injury", where the knee strikes the dashboard during a motor vehicle collision. The force is transmitted along the femur toward the hip.
Why B is correct (Femur fracture):
The force applied to the knee travels up the femur, which can result in:
Femoral shaft fractures
Significant internal bleeding
NREMT trauma guidance states:
"High-energy impacts to the lower extremities can result in femur fractures." Why E is correct (Posterior hip dislocation):
Dashboard injuries commonly cause:
Posterior displacement of the femoral head from the acetabulum
This occurs when the femur is driven backward while the hip is flexed
NREMT-aligned content:
"A blow to the knee in a seated position can result in posterior hip dislocation." Why the other options are incorrect:
A). Tibia fracture: More commonly associated with direct lower leg trauma, not classic dashboard mechanism.
C). Ruptured peritoneum: Not a typical injury from this mechanism.
D). Rupture of the bladder: More associated with pelvic fractures, not isolated dashboard knee impact.
Exact Extracts:
"A dashboard injury can transmit force up the femur causing hip dislocation."
"Posterior hip dislocation is commonly associated with knee impact in MVCs."
"Femur fractures are common in high-energy trauma."
References:
NREMT EMT Education Standards - Trauma (Musculoskeletal Injuries)
NREMT National Continued Competency Program (NCCP) - Trauma Emergencies Prehospital Emergency Care (EMT) - Mechanisms of Injury and Trauma Assessment
NEW QUESTION # 123
What should you anticipate when you go in for a deposition?
Answer: B
Explanation:
A deposition is a formal legal proceeding in which sworn testimony is taken prior to trial. NREMT education on EMS operations, documentation, and legal responsibilities emphasizes that EMTs may be required to participate in depositions as part of civil or criminal cases involving patient care.
Option C is correct because attorneys for all involved parties are typically present during a deposition.
These may include attorneys representing the plaintiff, defendant, EMS agency, or insurance providers. The EMT provides sworn testimony under oath, and the deposition may later be used in court.
Option A is incorrect because deposition testimony is admissible in court under many circumstances.
Option B is incorrect because depositions are not presided over by a judge; they are conducted by attorneys.
Option D is incorrect because exhibits such as patient care reports, protocols, or photographs may be introduced during a deposition.
NREMT stresses the importance of accurate documentation, professionalism, and honesty, as EMTs are legally accountable for their actions and statements.
NEW QUESTION # 124
A 30-year-old patient is injured in a motor vehicle collision. The patient cannot move their diaphragm, and they are apneic. In which of the following locations should the EMT suspect the spinal injury occurred?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The diaphragm is innervated by the phrenic nerve, which originates from spinal nerve roots C3-C5. NREMT teaching highlights the phrase: "C3, 4, and 5 keep the diaphragm alive." Option A (C4) is correct because an injury at or above this level can paralyze the diaphragm, resulting in apnea and immediate respiratory failure.
Option B (T1) and C (T3) affect intercostal muscles but not the diaphragm.
Option D (L4) affects lower extremity function only.
NREMT emphasizes that high cervical spine injuries are immediately life-threatening due to loss of ventilatory control.
NEW QUESTION # 125
Which of the following is an acute sign of closed head trauma?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Memory loss.
Why A is correct (Memory loss):
Memory loss (amnesia) is a common and immediate (acute) sign of closed head injury, especially in concussions. It may include:
Retrograde amnesia (loss of memory before the event)
Anterograde amnesia (inability to form new memories)
NREMT-aligned trauma guidance states:
"Patients with head injuries may present with confusion or memory loss immediately after the event." This is considered an early indicator of brain injury.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B). Beck ' s Triad: Associated with cardiac tamponade (hypotension, JVD, muffled heart sounds), not head trauma.
C). Battle ' s sign: Bruising behind the ears indicating a basilar skull fracture, but this is typically a late sign, not acute.
D). Raccoon eyes: Periorbital ecchymosis also indicating a basilar skull fracture, and similarly a delayed finding, not immediate.
Key Concept:
Acute signs = occur immediately (e.g., confusion, memory loss, LOC)
Late signs = develop over time (e.g., Battle's sign, raccoon eyes)
Exact Extracts:
"Early signs of head injury include confusion, disorientation, and memory loss."
"Battle's sign and raccoon eyes are late signs of basilar skull fracture."
"Assessment should identify immediate neurologic changes following trauma." References:
NREMT EMT Education Standards - Trauma (Head and Brain Injuries)
NREMT National Continued Competency Program (NCCP) - Trauma Management
Prehospital Emergency Care (EMT) - Traumatic Brain Injury
NEW QUESTION # 126
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