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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Physician Activities | 50% | - Communication - Professional Behaviours - Psychosocial Aspects - Management |
| Dimensions of Care | 50% | - Acute Care - Chronic Care - Assessment and Diagnosis - Health Promotion and Illness Prevention |
>> Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Valid Exam Topics <<
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NEW QUESTION # 285
A 4-month-old girl is brought by a parent to your clinic with a history of recurrent vomiting since birth. She cries with feeding and has not gained weight in the last 2 weeks. Her hemoglobin level is 95 g/L (100-125).
The patient is currently being fed thickened hypoallergenic formula. Which one of the following is the most appropriate therapy?
Answer: A
Explanation:
This infant has persistent vomiting with feeding-associated distress and poor weight gain, despite appropriate initial nonpharmacologic measures (thickened feeds and hypoallergenic formula). MCCQE pediatrics objectives emphasize distinguishing physiologic reflux ("happy spitter") from gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), which is suggested by feeding aversion/crying and failure to thrive. When conservative strategies fail and GERD is causing significant symptoms or complications (e.g., poor growth, suspected esophagitis contributing to irritability and possibly anemia), escalation to acid suppression is appropriate; a proton pump inhibitor such as omeprazole is used to treat acid-related esophageal injury and improve symptoms in selected infants with suspected erosive disease.
Metoclopramide is not preferred due to limited benefit and risk of extrapyramidal adverse effects. Calcium carbonate antacids are not recommended as ongoing therapy in infants due to safety concerns and inferior efficacy for esophagitis. Bismuth sulfate is not indicated. Loperamide is inappropriate and potentially harmful in infants. Continued monitoring of growth and reassessment for alternative diagnoses or alarm features is essential.
NEW QUESTION # 286
A 45-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after being involved in a motor vehicle collision.
She reports severe right hip pain. On examination, the right hip is flexed and adducted. A radiograph shows a posterior dislocation. Which one of the following is the most appropriate management?
Answer: B
Explanation:
A posterior hip dislocation is an orthopedic emergency . The classic position is a shortened limb held in flexion, adduction, and internal rotation after high-energy trauma. MCCQE objectives emphasize immediate recognition and urgent management to prevent complications, especially avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral head and sciatic nerve injury . The key treatment is prompt closed reduction (ideally within hours) under procedural sedation or anesthesia, after appropriate analgesia and neurovascular assessment. Post- reduction priorities include confirming concentric reduction with imaging, repeating a neurovascular exam (particularly sciatic nerve function), and evaluating for associated fractures (acetabular or femoral head/neck) that may require CT and possible operative management.
Open reduction is reserved for irreducible dislocations, incarcerated fragments, or associated fractures preventing stable closed reduction. Skeletal traction is not definitive acute management. Total hip arthroplasty is not indicated as first-line in an acute traumatic dislocation in this context. Urgent closed reduction best aligns with time-sensitive limb- and joint-preserving care.
NEW QUESTION # 287
A 47-year-old man has been training for a marathon. After a long run, he develops mild pain and swelling in his left knee. Examination shows a mild joint effusion and a soft tissue mass in the popliteal fossa. The knee radiograph is normal. Which one of the following is the best method of confirming the diagnosis?
Answer: A
Explanation:
This patient's presentation-knee effusion with a soft tissue mass in the popliteal fossa following exertion-is classic for a Baker (popliteal) cyst , which represents distention of the gastrocnemius-semimembranosus bursa, often associated with intra-articular pathology (e.g., meniscal injury or osteoarthritis). MCCQE objectives emphasize selecting the least invasive, most appropriate imaging modality to confirm suspected cystic lesions.
Ultrasound is the best initial diagnostic test because it is noninvasive, readily available, and highly sensitive for distinguishing a cystic structure from a solid mass or vascular pathology (e.g., popliteal artery aneurysm or deep vein thrombosis). It can also assess for complications such as cyst rupture.
Arthroscopy is invasive and not required for diagnosis. Arthrocentesis evaluates joint effusion but does not confirm a popliteal cyst. Aspiration of the mass without imaging is inappropriate due to risk of vascular injury. CT is unnecessary and exposes the patient to radiation.
Therefore, ultrasound is the preferred method to confirm a Baker cyst.
NEW QUESTION # 288
A mother brings her previously healthy 4-month-old girl for evaluation due to fussiness for 3 weeks. The infant becomes irritable and cries with occasional body arching 1-2 hours after feeding, frequently spits up after feeds, has developed feeding aversion, and shows slowing weight gain. She has been on cow's milk- based formula since birth. Stools are normal, and physical examination is unremarkable. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 289
A previously healthy 7-year-old boy presents to the Emergency Department with a generalized tonic-clonic seizure, which subsided spontaneously after 10 minutes. There is no history of trauma. Physical examination reveals normal vital signs and a normal neurologic examination. Which one of the following diagnostic studies is urgently indicated?
Answer: D
Explanation:
This child experienced a first unprovoked generalized tonic-clonic seizure that resolved spontaneously and now has a normal neurologic examination and stable vital signs. MCCQE objectives emphasize that the immediate priority after a first seizure is to identify reversible metabolic causes , particularly hypoglycemia and electrolyte abnormalities (e.g., hyponatremia, hypocalcemia). Therefore, urgent serum electrolytes (and glucose) are indicated.
Neuroimaging (CT or MRI) is not urgently required in a neurologically normal child without focal deficits, trauma, persistent altered consciousness, or signs of increased intracranial pressure. MRI may be arranged later for further evaluation if clinically indicated. Electroencephalography is useful in outpatient follow-up to assess seizure type and recurrence risk but is not an emergency test. Lumbar puncture is reserved for suspected central nervous system infection (e.g., fever, meningeal signs, altered mental status), which are absent here.
Thus, immediate laboratory evaluation for metabolic derangements is the appropriate urgent investigation.
NEW QUESTION # 290
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