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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Topic 1: Dimensions of Care | - Psychosocial Aspects
|
| Topic 2: Physician Activities | - Professionalism
|
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NEW QUESTION # 20
A 45-year-old man with confusion is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance. He has end-stage renal disease and has missed his last 3 dialysis appointments. He also has a past medical history of antisocial personality disorder and hepatitis C. On examination, he is in respiratory distress. His blood pressure is 170
/90 mm Hg, and his oxygen saturation is 84% on room air. His jugular venous pressure is 8 cm above the sternal angle, and he has crackles in his lungs bilaterally. A venous blood gas shows a bicarbonate of 11 mmol
/L (24-30) and potassium of 7.1 mmol/L (3.5-5.0). Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: D
Explanation:
This patient has life-threatening complications of missed dialysis , including severe hyperkalemia (K# 7.1 mmol/L), metabolic acidosis (HCO## 11 mmol/L), volume overload with pulmonary edema (hypoxia, crackles, elevated JVP), and altered mental status. MCCQE objectives emphasize immediate recognition and treatment of emergent indications for dialysis (AEIOU: Acidosis, Electrolyte abnormalities, Intoxication, Overload, Uremia) . This patient meets multiple criteria-particularly refractory hyperkalemia and pulmonary edema-requiring urgent hemodialysis .
In emergencies where delay would risk death or serious harm, treatment proceeds under implied consent , even if the patient is confused and capacity is uncertain. Contacting family or psychiatry would dangerously delay life-saving care. While temporizing measures (e.g., IV calcium, insulin/glucose) may be given, definitive management is emergent dialysis. Morphine and furosemide alone are inadequate in severe renal failure with life-threatening hyperkalemia. Therefore, immediate initiation of urgent dialysis is the correct next step.
NEW QUESTION # 21
A 71-year-old man with stable chronic low back pain on hydromorphone (8 mg twice daily) presents upset, requesting an early refill. He reports his granddaughter has been stealing his medication and pressuring him for refills. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: C
Explanation:
This case suggests diversion of prescription opioids, a serious safety and regulatory concern. The physician must balance maintaining patient care with minimizing risk. Daily dispensing via a monitored pharmacy is the safest and most practical solution to prevent misuse or theft, while avoiding immediate discontinuation of the patient's needed medication.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Chronic Pain & Substance Use:
"In cases of concern for opioid diversion, consider witnessed daily dispensing, prescription monitoring, and involving caregivers when appropriate." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > Pain Management > 56-2):
"The candidate must demonstrate understanding of strategies for safe prescribing and monitoring of controlled substances, including mitigation of diversion." Calling the police (A) is not the physician's immediate duty. Providing an early refill (B) worsens risk.
Tapering (C) may be appropriate later, but first the medication must be safeguarded. Increasing quantity (D) is inappropriate.
NEW QUESTION # 22
A 45-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after being involved in a motor vehicle collision.
She reports severe right hip pain. On examination, the right hip is flexed and adducted. A radiograph shows a posterior dislocation. Which one of the following is the most appropriate management?
Answer: A
Explanation:
A posterior hip dislocation is an orthopedic emergency . The classic position is a shortened limb held in flexion, adduction, and internal rotation after high-energy trauma. MCCQE objectives emphasize immediate recognition and urgent management to prevent complications, especially avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral head and sciatic nerve injury . The key treatment is prompt closed reduction (ideally within hours) under procedural sedation or anesthesia, after appropriate analgesia and neurovascular assessment. Post- reduction priorities include confirming concentric reduction with imaging, repeating a neurovascular exam (particularly sciatic nerve function), and evaluating for associated fractures (acetabular or femoral head/neck) that may require CT and possible operative management.
Open reduction is reserved for irreducible dislocations, incarcerated fragments, or associated fractures preventing stable closed reduction. Skeletal traction is not definitive acute management. Total hip arthroplasty is not indicated as first-line in an acute traumatic dislocation in this context. Urgent closed reduction best aligns with time-sensitive limb- and joint-preserving care.
NEW QUESTION # 23
A new patient, a 19-year-old man, presents to your office with low back pain. He has a history of opioid dependence and is now on a methadone maintenance treatment program. He is requesting opiate analgesics.
After examination, you decide not to prescribe opiates for pain control. The patient gets upset and threatens to file a complaint with your licensing authority. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: C
Explanation:
MCCQE ELOM objectives stress that physicians must prescribe controlled substances responsibly, use evidence-based pain management, and maintain professional boundaries despite pressure or threats of complaints. A threat to complain does not obligate opioid prescribing, especially in a patient with opioid use disorder where opioids increase risk of relapse, overdose, and diversion. The appropriate response is to remain calm, document the assessment and rationale, and ensure the patient is offered safe alternatives and continuity of care. Directing him to his methadone maintenance program is best because it supports coordinated management within an established addiction-treatment framework (often with structured monitoring, agreements, and access to addiction/pain expertise).
Prescribing "a small amount" or giving an injection undermines safe prescribing practices and reinforces drug- seeking behavior. Calling police is reserved for immediate safety threats, not dissatisfaction. Lumbar radiography is not the next step unless red flags are present; it does not address the ethical issue. Coordinated care with the methadone program and non-opioid strategies is the safest, most appropriate action.
NEW QUESTION # 24
A 31-year-old nulligravid woman presents to your office after 5 months of attempting to get pregnant without success. Her menses are regular, and she is otherwise healthy. Her husband is healthy and has never fathered any children before. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Infertility is defined as the inability to conceive after 12 months of regular, unprotected intercourse in women under 35 years. Since she has been trying for only 5 months, reassurance is appropriate.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology:
"Investigations for infertility in women under 35 should begin after 12 months of attempting to conceive, unless other risk factors are present." MCCQE1 Objectives (Gynecology > 82-1: Infertility):
"Candidates must apply appropriate timing and indications for infertility investigations based on patient age and history." Earlier testing is not warranted here. Options A-D are part of the infertility work-up but not before 12 months.
NEW QUESTION # 25
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