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AAPC CPC Exam Overview:

Certification Vendor:AAPC
Exam Name:AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Certification Exam
Exam Number:CPC
Real Exam Qty:150 multiple-choice questions
Certificate Validity Period:2 years (renewal via Continuing Education Units - CEUs)
Related Certifications:Certified Outpatient Coder (COC)
Certified Coding Specialist (CCS)
Certified Inpatient Coder (CIC)
Exam Price:$399–$499 USD (varies by membership and region)
Passing Score:Approximately 70%
Exam Duration:340 minutes
Exam Format:Multiple Choice Questions, Open-book (CPT, ICD-10-CM, HCPCS manuals allowed)
Available Languages:English
Recommended Training:AAPC CPC Practice Exams
AAPC CPC Training Course
Exam Registration:AAPC CPC Certification Page
AAPC Exam Registration Portal
Sample Questions:AAPC CPC Sample Questions
Exam Way:Available via online proctored exam or authorized testing centers (in-person).
Pre Condition:No formal prerequisite required. Recommended: 1–2 years of medical coding experience or completion of AAPC CPC training.
Official Syllabus URL:https://www.aapc.com/certification/cpc/

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AAPC CPC Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Hemic & Lymphatic Systems, Mediastinum, Diaphragm: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and includes procedures related to the spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow, as well as surgical interventions in the mediastinum and diaphragm. Coders must differentiate procedures by region and system accurately.
Topic 2
  • The Business of Medicine: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and covers foundational knowledge regarding the healthcare system, reimbursement models, insurance payers, HIPAA compliance, and the ethical responsibilities coders hold within clinical and billing environments. It establishes the context in which coding decisions directly affect healthcare operations and financial outcomes.
Topic 3
  • Radiology: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and focuses on diagnostic imaging procedures including X-rays, CT scans, MRIs, ultrasounds, and nuclear medicine. It emphasizes proper selection of codes based on anatomical site and modality used.
Topic 4
  • Integumentary System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and covers procedures related to the skin and related structures. Topics include excisions, biopsies, repairs, and destruction services, focusing on accurate code selection and modifier usage for integumentary interventions.
Topic 5
  • Review of Anatomy: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers a high-level understanding of human anatomy. It includes organs, systems, directional terminology, and anatomical locations, enabling coders to link procedures and diagnoses to the correct bodily structures with accuracy and consistency.
Topic 6
  • Pathology & Laboratory: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and includes lab tests, specimen analysis, and pathological examination procedures. It ensures that coders understand how to apply codes for chemistry panels, cultures, and histopathological diagnostics.
Topic 7
  • Overview of ICD-10-CM: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and introduces the structure, format, and usage of the ICD-10-CM coding system. It reviews the purpose of ICD-10-CM in diagnosis reporting and prepares candidates to interpret chapters, code ranges, and conventions embedded in the system.
Topic 8
  • Special Senses (Ocular and Auditory): This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers the coding of procedures related to the eyes and ears. Topics include surgeries on the cornea, retina, and middle
  • inner ear, as well as related diagnostic procedures.
Topic 9
  • Accurate ICD-10-CM Coding: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and focuses on the precise assignment of diagnosis codes using the ICD-10-CM system. The goal is to ensure accurate representation of patient conditions, proper sequencing, and a clear linkage between diagnoses and services.
Topic 10
  • Anesthesia: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and involves coding anesthesia services based on surgical site, complexity, and time. It tests the understanding of anesthesia modifiers and the importance of linking anesthesia codes with the correct primary procedures.
Topic 11
  • Urinary System and Male Genital System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and assesses understanding of procedures on kidneys, bladder, ureters, prostate, and male reproductive organs. Proper use of CPT codes for surgical and diagnostic interventions is tested.
Topic 12
  • Respiratory System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and evaluates the ability to code procedures involving the nose, sinuses, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Attention is given to services like endoscopies, excisions, and resections within the respiratory tract.

AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam Sample Questions (Q359-Q364):

NEW QUESTION # 359
A patient presents to the emergency room with a nosebleed that is controlled by limited anterior nasal packing.
What CPT code is reported?

Answer: D

Explanation:
30901 = Control of anterior epistaxis, limited, any method
30903/30905/30906 are for extensive packing or posterior epistaxis


NEW QUESTION # 360
A 50-year-old patient presented with a persistent cough has not responded to standard treatments. The patient's physician decides to perform a flexible bronchoscopy with bronchial biopsies to further investigate the cause. A flexible bronchoscope is inserted through the patient's mouth and into the bronchial tubes. Five biopsies are taken for further testing. The biopsies were sent to the lab for analysis to determine the next steps in the patient's treatment plan.
What CPT coding is reported?

Answer: A

Explanation:
The procedure described is flexible bronchoscopy with bronchial biopsy (biopsy taken from the bronchi
/bronchial tubes).
31625 = Bronchoscopy, flexible, with biopsy (single or multiple)
Important CPC concept: when the CPT descriptor is "single or multiple", you code it once, even if multiple biopsies are taken.
31628 is for transbronchial lung biopsy, which is not what is described (the question specifies bronchial tubes
/bronchial biopsies).Therefore, A is correct.


NEW QUESTION # 361
A witness of a traffic accident called 911. An ambulance with emergency basic life support arrived at the scene of the accident. The injured party was stabilized and taken to the hospital. What HCPCS Level II coding is reported for the ambulance's service?

Answer: B

Explanation:
* The scenario describes an emergency basic life support (BLS) ambulance service. The appropriate HCPCS Level II code for BLS emergency transport is A0429.
* Modifier QN indicates that the service was provided by an ambulance supplier, and SH indicates the services were provided in an emergency situation.
References:
* HCPCS Level II, current year


NEW QUESTION # 362
(Patient with erectile dysfunction is presenting for a penile implant. Anon-inflatable penile prosthesisis inserted. What CPT code is reported for this service?)

Answer: B

Explanation:
Penile prosthesis coding is determined by thetype of deviceand whether the procedure is asimple insertion, areplacement, or a more complex scenario. Anon-inflatable(malleable or semi-rigid) penile prosthesis is specifically reported withCPT 54416. Inflatable devices are coded differently (commonly with a different code family), and replacement/revision services may also have distinct codes depending on what is removed and replaced. In this question, the vignette is straightforward: erectile dysfunction treated with insertion of anon-inflatable prosthesis-no mention of prior implant, revision, or removal-so the correct code is the primary insertion code for that device type. The distractors include other penile procedures and prosthesis- related codes that do not match "non-inflatable insertion." CPC exam tip: lock onto "non-inflatable" vs
"inflatable," and then confirm the action isinsertionrather than revision or replacement. That leads to54416.


NEW QUESTION # 363
Preoperative diagnosis: Right thigh benign congenital hairy nevus. *1
Postoperative diagnosis: Right thigh benign congenital hairy 0 nevus.
Operation performed: Excision of right thigh benign congenital>1
nevus, excision size with margins 4.5 cm and closure size 5 cm.
Anesthesia: General.0
Intraoperative antibiotics: Ancef.0
Indications: The patient is a 5-year-old girl who presented with her parents for evaluation of her right thigh congenital nevus. It has been followed by pediatrics and thought to have changed over the past year. Family requested excision. They understood the risks involved, which included but were not limited to risks of general anesthesia, infection, bleeding, wound dehiscence, and poor scar formation. They understood the scar would likely widen as the child grows because of the location of it and because of the age of the patient. They consented to proceed.
Description of procedure: The patient was seen preoperatively in > I the holding area, identified, and then brought to the operating room. Once adequate general anesthesia had been induced, the patient's right thigh was prepped and draped in standard surgical fashion. An elliptical excision measuring 6 x 1.8 cm had been marked. This was injected with Lidocaine with epinephrine, total of 6 cc of 1% with 1:100,000. After an adequate amount of time, a #15 blade was used to sharply excise this full thickness.
This was passed to pathology for review. The wound required limited undermining in the deep subcutaneous plane on both sides for approximately 1.5 cm in order to allow mobilization of the skin for closure. The skin was then closed in a layered fashion using 3-0 Vicryl on the dermis and then 4-0 Monocryl running subcuticular in the skin, the wound was cleaned and dressed with Dermabond and Steri-Strips.
The patient was then cleaned and turned over to anesthesia for S extubation.
She was extubated successfully in the operating room and taken S to the recovery room in stable condition. There were no complications.
What CPT and ICD-10-CM code is reported?

Answer: B

Explanation:
99242 = Outpatient consultation, moderate complexity
L93.1 = Subacute cutaneous lupus erythematosus
R21 = Rash (allowed as secondary symptom)


NEW QUESTION # 364
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