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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Dimensions of Care | 50% | - Acute Care - Assessment and Diagnosis - Health Promotion and Illness Prevention - Chronic Care |
| Physician Activities | 50% | - Professional Behaviours - Communication - Management - Psychosocial Aspects |
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NEW QUESTION # 132
A 31-year-old man presents with nocturnal non-exertional chest pain. During an exercise stress test, he does not experience chest pain, and there are no significant ST segment changes on the electrocardiogram. He achieves 17 metabolic equivalent of task (MET), a blood pressure of 190/96 mm Hg (resting blood pressure of
130/80 mm Hg), and a maximum heart rate of 162/min (85% of age-predicted maximum). Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Answer: E
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
This patient demonstrates excellent exercise tolerance (17 METs) and no ischemic changes or exertional symptoms, which makes cardiac ischemia unlikely. However, the hypertensive response to exercise (BP >
190 systolic) indicates masked or latent hypertension. This should be managed proactively, typically starting with a thiazide.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Cardiology:
"An exaggerated hypertensive response during exercise is predictive of future hypertension. Treatment with antihypertensive agents such as thiazides may be warranted." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 31-1: Hypertension and Risk Management):
"Candidates must identify abnormal BP responses to exercise and initiate appropriate treatment." Reassurance alone (A) ignores the hypertensive response. Catheterization (C) and beta-blockers (D) are unnecessary without ischemia. Advising against exercise (B) is counterproductive in a young, otherwise healthy patient.
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NEW QUESTION # 133
A 60-year-old man has a strong family history of aortic aneurysms. Screening abdominal ultrasonography reveals an incidental <1 cm mass in his left kidney. Computed tomography confirms that the mass is consistent with renal adenocarcinoma. Which one of the following is the most appropriate step in management?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
For small renal masses (<4 cm), partial nephrectomy (nephron-sparing surgery) is the standard of care in patients who are surgical candidates. It preserves renal function and provides oncologic control.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Urology / Oncology:
"Small renal tumors <4 cm should be treated with partial nephrectomy. Active surveillance or ablation may be alternatives in poor surgical candidates." MCCQE1 Objectives (Urology > 59-2: Renal Masses):
"Candidates must manage small renal tumors with nephron-sparing surgery when feasible." MRI (A) is unnecessary after CT confirmation. Radiation (B) is not first-line. Surveillance (D) may be appropriate for elderly or frail patients, not this one. Ablation (E) is for high-risk surgical patients.
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NEW QUESTION # 134
A 45-year-old man presents to your family practice for follow-up because he has had repeated transient ischemic attacks and had been advised not to drive. During the interview, you find out that he is still driving.
He explains that he only drives to the grocery store and his wife, who also has a driver's license, is always a passenger with him. He insists he can drive. You think that he should no longer be driving a car. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: C
Explanation:
In most Canadian provinces and territories, physicians are legally obligated to report patients who pose a danger due to medical conditions affecting driving ability. Given the history of TIAs and continued unsafe driving, reporting is necessary for public safety.
Toronto Notes 2023 - ELOM, "Fitness to Drive" Section:
"Physicians must report to motor vehicle authorities if a patient poses a risk to public safety due to a medical condition. TIAs are considered reportable if they impair ability and the patient does not comply with driving restrictions." MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 99-1: Medical Fitness and Reporting):
"Candidates must recognize situations requiring mandatory reporting of patients unfit to drive due to neurologic or other impairing conditions." You may still discuss with the patient (B), but this does not replace the duty to report. Physically taking the license (C) is illegal. Refusing care (D) is unethical. A neurologist (E) could be helpful but would delay action in a clear case.
NEW QUESTION # 135
A 26-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 2, aborta 0, has just delivered a full-term newborn via spontaneous vaginal delivery after 4 hours of labor. Following oxytocin administration and placental expulsion, there continues to be a steady trickle of bright red blood from her vagina. On examination, the placenta is intact and the fundus feels firm. Her vital signs are within normal range.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: E
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
In postpartum hemorrhage with a firm uterine fundus and intact placenta, a common cause is trauma such as a vaginal or cervical tear. Uterine atony (A) typically presents with a boggy uterus. The absence of systemic instability or coagulopathy makes options D and E less likely.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Obstetrics, Postpartum Hemorrhage:
"Continued bleeding despite a firm fundus and intact placenta should raise suspicion for genital tract trauma, especially cervical or vaginal lacerations." MCCQE1 Objectives - Obstetrics > Postpartum Complications:
"Candidates must differentiate causes of postpartum hemorrhage and identify when bleeding is due to trauma vs uterine atony."
NEW QUESTION # 136
A 65-year-old man presents to your clinic with a 2-month history of persistent erectile dysfunction. He reports having difficulties maintaining an erection. His last hemoglobin A1c level result was 6.4% (4.8-6.0). He had a negative result on his cardiac stress test 1 month ago. He has been taking stable dosages of citalopram, metformin, and ramipril for the past 2 years. His physical examination findings are normal, and his mood appears euthymic. Which one of the following investigations should be ordered before initiating treatment with sildenafil?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Erectile dysfunction (ED) in older men is commonly vascular, medication-related, or associated with diabetes.
This patient has well-controlled diabetes (HbA1c 6.4%) and a recent negative cardiac stress test , suggesting he is at low cardiovascular risk for sexual activity. MCCQE objectives emphasize cardiovascular risk stratification prior to prescribing phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE-5) inhibitors. Patients who are stable and cleared for moderate physical exertion (e.g., recent negative stress test) do not require additional cardiac testing before initiating sildenafil.
There is no indication for routine CBC, urine culture, PSA, or echocardiography in the absence of relevant symptoms or findings. PSA screening is unrelated to ED management and should follow age-appropriate shared decision-making guidelines. Echocardiography is unnecessary without cardiac symptoms or abnormal exam.
The key contraindication to sildenafil is concurrent nitrate therapy or unstable cardiovascular disease, neither of which is present. Therefore, no additional investigations are required before initiating treatment.
Counseling should include discussion of medication interactions, side effects (e.g., headache, flushing), and avoidance with nitrates.
NEW QUESTION # 137
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