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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Security Operations | 34% | - Threat Intelligence and Hunting
|
| Incident Response and Management | 24% | - Incident Response Processes
|
| Reporting and Communication | 16% | - Communication
|
| Vulnerability Management | 26% | - Vulnerability Response
|
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NEW QUESTION # 13
Which of the following contains stakeholder contact information for incident response reporting?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The communication plan is the appropriate document because it establishes who must be contacted during an incident, how communications should occur, which channels are authorized, and how information should be escalated to internal and external stakeholders.
Incident-response communications may involve security personnel, executive leadership, legal counsel, privacy teams, public relations, human resources, business owners, vendors, regulators, law enforcement, customers, and other parties depending on incident severity. NIST's incident-response guidance emphasizes coordination with relevant stakeholders as part of an effective response capability. A communication plan operationalizes that requirement by maintaining contact information, responsibilities, escalation paths, notification requirements, and approved communication methods.
An organization chart identifies reporting relationships but may not contain emergency contact details, alternate channels, external contacts, or escalation procedures. A previous incident report documents a historical event and should not be treated as the authoritative contact source. Standard operating procedures can describe technical or administrative steps, but stakeholder communications are more appropriately centralized in the incident communication plan.
Maintaining this information in advance is critical because incident response frequently occurs under time pressure and may involve unavailable or compromised normal communication systems.
Study Guide Reference: Reporting and Communication # Communication Plan # Stakeholder Contacts # Escalation Paths # Internal/External Notifications # Out-of-Band Communications.
NEW QUESTION # 14
The Chief Information Officer (CIO) is requiring users to phase out a legacy system that no longer receives security updates because the system will be decommissioned soon.
Which of the following risk management strategies is the CIO using?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The CIO is implementing risk avoidance because the organization is eliminating the activity or technology that creates the risk. The legacy system no longer receives security updates, so continued operation would maintain exposure to vulnerabilities that may eventually become impossible to remediate. By phasing out and ultimately decommissioning the system, the organization removes that source of risk instead of continuing to operate it under additional controls.
NIST recognizes acceptance, avoidance, mitigation, sharing, and transfer as established risk-response approaches. Avoidance differs from mitigation because mitigation would retain the legacy system while implementing controls that reduce its likelihood or impact-for example, segmentation, strict access controls, application allowlisting, or enhanced monitoring.
Risk acceptance would involve deliberately continuing to operate the system after management acknowledges and approves the remaining exposure. Risk transference would shift some financial or operational consequences to another party, such as through insurance or contractual arrangements.
The phrase "phase out" is the decisive indicator. The organization intends to stop using the risk-producing technology entirely, making avoidance the most precise classification.
Study Guide Reference: Vulnerability Management # Risk Management # Risk Responses # Avoidance # Mitigation # Acceptance # Transference # Legacy and End-of-Life Systems.
NEW QUESTION # 15
A security analyst uses a full pcap solution to extract all traffic from the last two days associated with the
10.213.4.27 file server.
This file server is under investigation due to concerns about potential data exfiltration using Domain Name System (DNS) traffic.
Which of the following commands should the analyst use to extract any potentially leaked data from the suspicious.pcap file?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Option D applies the correct packet-filtering logic to isolate DNS-related traffic associated with the suspected server . The -r suspicious.pcap option directs tcpdump to read packets from the existing PCAP rather than capture live traffic. The expression port 53 and host 10.213.4.27 then limits output to packets involving the specified system and DNS's conventional port 53.
This is directly relevant to suspected DNS exfiltration. Attackers can encode data within DNS queries or responses, including unusually long subdomains or other manipulated DNS fields. Isolating the target's port
53 traffic dramatically reduces the dataset and allows the analyst to examine relevant queries and responses for encoded or anomalous information.
strings suspicious.pcap | grep treats the capture primarily as raw printable data and does not accurately perform protocol-aware packet filtering. The Zeek option searches file.log, which is focused on files observed in network traffic and is not the most direct location for DNS-query analysis. The Snort syntax shown is also inappropriate for the required extraction workflow.
The essential skill is translating an investigative hypothesis- possible DNS exfiltration by a known host - into a precise PCAP filter.
Study Guide Reference: Security Operations # Network Traffic Analysis # Full Packet Capture # tcpdump # BPF Filters # DNS Analysis # Data Exfiltration Detection.
NEW QUESTION # 16
An analyst reviews code for a sensitive application for their company and uploads it to an AI platform.
This application is critical to the company's business operations. Which of the following risks is most important for the analyst to consider?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Uploading sensitive application code to an AI platform creates a significant risk that proprietary or confidential information could be exposed, stored, or used beyond the organization's control.
NEW QUESTION # 17
When vulnerabilities are identified weeks after the disclosure, which of the following KPIs most likely needs to be adjusted?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Mean Time to Detect (MTTD) measures how quickly vulnerabilities or security issues are identified after they become known or occur. If vulnerabilities are being discovered weeks after public disclosure, the organization's detection process is too slow, indicating that the MTTD KPI needs improvement.
NEW QUESTION # 18
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