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ASHRM CPHRM Exam Overview:

Certification Vendor:ASHRM (American Society for Healthcare Risk Management)
Exam Name:Certified Professional in Health Care Risk Management Exam
Exam Number:CPHRM
Certificate Validity Period:3 years
Available Languages:English
Passing Score:Criterion-referenced, no fixed numerical score published
Real Exam Qty:110 (100 scored, 10 unscored pre-test items)
Exam Duration:120 minutes
Exam Price:$275 (ASHRM members), $425 (non-members)
Exam Format:Computer-based, Multiple-choice questions
Recommended Training:CPHRM Exam Prep Course
Exam Registration:PSI Testing Registration
ASHRM Official CPHRM Page
Sample Questions:ASHRM CPHRM Sample Questions
Exam Way:Onsite at PSI testing centers or live remote proctored online
Pre Condition:One of: Bachelor's degree + 5 years healthcare experience; Associate degree + 7 years; High school diploma + 9 years; plus 3,000 hours or 50% of job duties in healthcare risk management within last 3 years
Official Syllabus URL:https://www.ashrm.org/education/cphrm

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ASHRM CPHRM Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Claims and Litigation: This domain focuses on handling potential claims and legal cases, including claim reporting, litigation support, legal documentation management, and analyzing claims data to understand risk exposure.
Topic 2
  • Clinical
  • Patient Safety: This domain focuses on improving patient safety by promoting a safety culture, managing incident reporting, educating staff and patients, addressing ethical concerns, and implementing corrective actions to reduce risks and prevent harm.
Topic 3
  • Risk Financing: This domain covers managing financial risks through insurance programs, claims coordination, loss analysis, and developing strategies to reduce financial exposure.
Topic 4
  • Legal and Regulatory: This domain focuses on ensuring compliance with healthcare laws and regulations, protecting patient information, managing reporting requirements, and supporting accreditation and regulatory responses.
Topic 5
  • Healthcare Operations: This domain involves managing operational risk activities such as conducting risk assessments, developing policies, coordinating risk programs, supervising staff, and supporting patient safety initiatives.

ASHRM Certified Professional in Health Care Risk Management (CPHRM) Sample Questions (Q26-Q31):

NEW QUESTION # 26
Which of the following factors should be considered when setting or adjusting indemnity reserves?
* incurred medical expenses
* emotional pain and suffering
* medical expert witness costs
* future cost of medical care

Answer: C

Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management principles established by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, indemnity reserves represent the estimated amount the organization expects to pay in settlement or judgment to a claimant. Indemnity refers specifically to damages paid to compensate the injured party, not defense or administrative expenses.
Incurred medical expenses are a core component of economic damages and must be included in indemnity reserve calculations. Emotional pain and suffering fall under non-economic damages and are also considered when estimating potential settlement or verdict value. Future cost of medical care is another essential factor, particularly in cases involving long-term injury or disability, as it represents projected economic damages that may substantially increase exposure.
Medical expert witness costs, however, are categorized as defense expenses and are typically included in allocated loss adjustment expenses rather than indemnity reserves. These costs relate to the defense of the claim rather than compensation to the plaintiff.
Risk management objectives emphasize accurate differentiation between indemnity and expense reserves to ensure proper financial reporting and regulatory compliance. Therefore, incurred medical expenses, pain and suffering, and future medical costs should be considered when setting indemnity reserves, while expert witness costs should not.


NEW QUESTION # 27
According to The Joint Commission, which of the following should be done to patient-owned electrical devices entering the facility?

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 28
When CPOE is implemented, there is almost always a decline in:

Answer: D

Explanation:
Computerized Provider Order Entry (CPOE) reduces medication errors primarily by eliminating illegible handwriting, standardizing order fields, and enabling decision support (allergy checks, dosing ranges, interactions). Evidence indicates CPOE can significantly reduce prescribing errors and improve patient safety, though it can also introduce new error types (selection errors, alert fatigue), requiring careful design and monitoring. From a risk management perspective, CPOE is a high-impact control that strengthens medication safety defenses at the "front end" of the medication-use process. Risk objectives include governance for order sets, usability testing, monitoring override patterns, and continuous training to prevent workarounds. Properly implemented, CPOE supports safer, more reliable care and reduces preventable adverse drug events, aligning with enterprise safety goals and regulatory expectations for medication management.


NEW QUESTION # 29
What is responsible for many HIPAA privacy violations in practice?

Answer: C

Explanation:
A frequent HIPAA Privacy Rule violation isimpermissible access or disclosureof protected health information-commonly including employee "snooping" (accessing records of family, friends, coworkers, or celebrities without a work-related need) and other unauthorized disclosures. Risk management objectives focus on preventing these events through role-based access, audit logs with active monitoring, sanctions policies consistently enforced, workforce training, and a culture that treats privacy as patient safety. Even when disclosures are not malicious, "minimum necessary" failures, misdirected faxes/emails, and unsecured devices can create reportable breaches. Effective prevention is layered: technical controls (access restrictions), administrative controls (policies, training), and detection/response (auditing, rapid mitigation). Privacy violations are high-risk because they harm patients, trigger regulatory action, and damage trust and reputation.


NEW QUESTION # 30
Which of the following wouldnotbe considered an emergency condition for EMTALA purposes (as a general example set)?

Answer: A

Explanation:
EMTALA applies when an individual comes to the ED and requires a medical screening exam to determine whether anemergency medical condition (EMC)exists. Conditions like myocardial infarction, ruptured appendix, and unstable labor can constitute EMCs because absence of immediate medical attention could reasonably be expected to place health in serious jeopardy. By contrast,stable chronic kidney failurewithout acute destabilization may not meet the EMC threshold-though the screening exam must be performed before that determination is made. Risk management objectives emphasize: never "triage out" without an appropriate screening exam, document findings and decision-making, and apply consistent policies to avoid discriminatory practice. EMTALA failures often stem from process breakdowns (delays, refusal, inadequate screening, improper transfer), so standardized ED workflows and training are critical.


NEW QUESTION # 31
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