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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Application Control & URL Filtering | 7% | - Policy configuration for web access - Application and URL category filtering - HTTPS Inspection concepts and setup |
| Security Policy Management | 15% | - Rule base configuration and optimization - Access control policy creation and editing - Policy installation and verification |
| Identity Awareness | 7% | - Identity sources and integration - Identity Awareness blade activation - User-based access control rules |
| Introduction to Quantum Security | 10% | - Security Gateway and Security Management Server overview - SmartConsole navigation and usage - Check Point Quantum Security architecture and components |
| VPN Configuration and Management | 10% | - Site-to-site VPN setup - Remote Access VPN configuration - VPN communities and encryption domains |
| Threat Prevention & Monitoring | 13% | - System health and gateway status monitoring - Anti-malware, Anti-bot, and IPS configuration - Threat Prevention profiles and policies - Log monitoring, analysis, and troubleshooting |
| Network Address Translation (NAT) | 10% | - Automatic and Manual NAT rules - NAT configuration and troubleshooting - NAT in complex network environments |
| Administrator Account Management | 8% | - Creating and managing administrator accounts - Authentication methods and security settings - Configuring permissions and access roles |
| Object Management | 12% | - Hosts, networks, groups, and services management - Object organization and reuse best practices - Creating and configuring network objects |
| Policy Layers | 8% | - Ordered and Inline Layers concepts - Layer-based policy design and best practices - Shared Inline Layers configuration |
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NEW QUESTION # 122
If the Active Security Management Server fails or if it becomes necessary to change the Active to Standby, the following steps must be taken to prevent data loss. Providing the Active Security Management Server is responsible, which of these steps should NOT be performed:
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is A because renaming the hostname of the Standby member to match exactly the hostname of the Active member is not a recommended step to prevent data loss.The hostname of the Standby member should be different from the hostname of the Active member1.The other steps are necessary to ensure a smooth failover and synchronization between the Active and Standby Security Management Servers2. Check Point R81.20 Administration Guide,156-315.81 Checkpoint Exam Info and Free Practice Test
NEW QUESTION # 123
Which of the following is the default role-based shell on Gaia?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. The default Gaia shell is Gaia Clish. Official R82 Gaia documentation explicitly states that the default Gaia shell is called clish and describes Gaia Clish as a restrictive shell where role-based administration controls the commands available to the logged-in user. This matters because Gaia separates routine administrative operations from unrestricted low-level access. Expert Mode exists, but it is more permissive and should be used only when lower-level operating system access is required. Option A is therefore wrong as a default shell answer: Expert Mode is available, but not the default role-based shell. Options B and C are not official Gaia shell names in R82. Gaia Clish is used for system configuration and operational commands such as interfaces, routes, DNS, users, roles, backups, and other platform settings. For CCSA, the important point is that Gaia Clish is the controlled administrative CLI, while Expert Mode is the Linux-based shell used for advanced troubleshooting and low-level operations. Reference topics: Gaia Clish, Expert Mode, role-based administration, Gaia OS.
NEW QUESTION # 124
CPU-level of your Security gateway is peaking to 100% causing problems with traffic. You suspect that the problem might be the Threat Prevention settings.
The following Threat Prevention Profile has been created.
How could you tune the profile in order to lower the CPU load still maintaining security at good level? Select the BEST answer.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The BEST way to tune the profile in order to lower the CPU load still maintaining security at good level is to set the Performance Impact toMedium or lower. This will reduce the number of packets that are inspected by the Threat Prevention blades, while still providing a high level of protection . Setting High Confidence to Low and Low Confidence to Inactive will lower the security level, as it will allow more traffic that may be malicious. The problem is likely with the Threat Prevention Profile, as it can have a significant impact on the CPU utilization of the Security Gateway. Adding more memory to the appliance will not solve the problem, as memory is not the bottleneck in this case. Setting the Performance Impact to Very Low Confidence to Prevent will increase the CPU load, as it will inspect more packets and block more traffic that may be false positives.
NEW QUESTION # 125
What is the advantage of Autonomous Threat Prevention?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. The practical advantage of Autonomous Threat Prevention is simplified, profile-based, single-click-style configuration. Administrators select an appropriate Autonomous profile rather than manually assembling and tuning large sets of protections. Option A is unsupported because licensing cost is not the technical advantage being tested. Option B is also unsupported; simplified configuration does not automatically mean lower resource consumption than classic Threat Prevention. Option D is too absolute because the protection quality depends on the deployment, profile, traffic visibility, updates, and policy design. The correct exam framing is operational simplification:
Autonomous Threat Prevention gives fast deployment and Check Point-maintained protection recommendations while still allowing administrators to review, monitor, and customize where necessary. This makes it useful for organizations that want strong baseline prevention without maintaining every IPS/protection setting manually. Reference topics: Autonomous Threat Prevention, profile-based deployment, simplified configuration, automatic updates.
NEW QUESTION # 126
Which feature of Autonomous Threat Prevention ensures that organizations benefit from the latest protections without manual configuration?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Automatic configuration updates are what allow Autonomous Threat Prevention to keep protections aligned with Check Point's current recommendations without requiring administrators to manually adjust every protection. Threat Emulation is an important Threat Prevention capability for analyzing suspicious files, but it is not the feature that updates the Autonomous profile configuration. Manual policy tuning is the opposite of the automation being tested. Static NAT enforcement is completely unrelated to Threat Prevention; NAT changes packet addresses and ports and does not update security protections.
Autonomous Threat Prevention is valuable because it combines predefined segment profiles with automatic updates and profile-driven protection logic. Administrators still monitor logs, review detections, and customize when needed, but they are not expected to maintain every low-level protection selection manually.
Reference topics: Autonomous Threat Prevention, automatic configuration updates, predefined profiles, Threat Prevention policy automation.
NEW QUESTION # 127
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