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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Topic 1: Dimensions of Care | - Health Promotion and Illness Prevention
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| Topic 2: Physician Activities | - Assessment
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NEW QUESTION # 181
A 55-year-old man with alcohol use disorder presents with a 2-day history of confusion. Onexamination, you note a sixth nerve palsy and a horizontal nystagmus. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Wernicke encephalopathy is a medical emergency caused by thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency, most often seen in chronic alcohol use. The classic triad is:
* Confusion
* Oculomotor dysfunction (e.g., nystagmus, cranial nerve palsies)
* Ataxia
Toronto Notes 2023 - Neurology and Psychiatry, "Wernicke Encephalopathy" Section:
"Wernicke encephalopathy is diagnosed clinically. Symptoms include ophthalmoplegia (e.g., CN VI palsy), horizontal nystagmus, ataxia, and confusion. Immediate parenteral thiamine is indicated before glucose administration." MCCQE1 Objectives (Neurology > 75-1: Neurologic Emergencies):
"Candidates must recognize Wernicke encephalopathy in at-risk individuals and initiate urgent thiamine replacement." Other choices like cerebellar degeneration (A) and hepatic encephalopathy (D) are more chronic and lack the characteristic eye findings. Subdural hematoma (B) and hemorrhage (E) may mimic confusion but are less likely with these neurologic signs and history.
NEW QUESTION # 182
A 20-year-old man is brought by a friend to the emergency department with an elevated temperature, generalized muscle rigidity, hypovolemia, a fluctuating level of consciousness, and impaired attention. The patient also may be responding to auditory hallucinations. The friend informs you that the patient overdosed with a prescribed medication. Which one of the following medications is most likely to cause these symptoms?
Answer: B
Explanation:
This presentation is classic for neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic drugs (particularly dopamine antagonists like risperidone). Features include hyperthermia, rigidity, altered mental status, and autonomic instability.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, "Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome":
"NMS is associated with antipsychotic use. Key features: hyperthermia, lead-pipe rigidity, altered consciousness, autonomic dysfunction. Elevated CK, leukocytosis often present." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-5: Adverse Effects of Psychotropics):
"Candidates must recognize and manage neuroleptic malignant syndrome and differentiate it from other drug toxicities." Amitriptyline (B) overdose causes anticholinergic symptoms. Lamotrigine (A) causes rash or seizures in toxicity. Lithium (D) leads to tremor, ataxia, and GI upset. Lorazepam (E) causes CNS depression, not rigidity or fever.
NEW QUESTION # 183
A mother brings her 4-week-old daughter to your office because she is concerned about the lesion shown in the attached image. Which one of the following is the most appropriate advice to give the mother?
Answer: B
Explanation:
In a 4-week-old infant, a common vascular lesion such as a nevus simplex ("salmon patch") or a superficial infantile hemangioma is a frequent benign finding. Nevus simplex lesions are flat, pink-red patches commonly located on the eyelids, glabella, or nape of the neck and typically fade spontaneously over the first
1-2 years of life. Superficial infantile hemangiomas may initially enlarge but later undergo spontaneous involution during early childhood. In the absence of concerning features (rapid ulceration, functional impairment, large segmental distribution, or associated anomalies), reassurance and observation are appropriate.
There is no indication of trauma requiring child protective services, nor signs of a bleeding disorder. These common neonatal vascular lesions are not associated with increased melanoma risk. Routine dermatology referral is unnecessary unless the lesion is atypical or complicated.
MCCQE objectives emphasize distinguishing benign neonatal skin findings from pathology, providing parental reassurance, and avoiding unnecessary investigations or referrals while recognizing features that would warrant further evaluation.
NEW QUESTION # 184
A 27-year-old woman presents to her family physician's office and states that she is pregnant and would like to be referred for an abortion. She is at approximately 9 weeks' gestation by dates. The family physician has personal conscience-based objections to the procedure. Which one of the following would be the best next step for this physician?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Physicians in Canada who have conscientious objections to procedures such as abortion are legally and ethically required to make an effective referral to another provider or service that can offer the treatment. The provider must not delay access to care.
Toronto Notes 2023 - ELOM, "Conscientious Objection":
"A physician who objects to providing a service for reasons of conscience must make an effective referral to another provider or agency." MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > Professionalism > 90-1):
"Candidates must recognize the obligation to refer patients for services they themselves will not provide due to personal or religious beliefs." Delaying care (C), imposing personal beliefs (A), or suggesting alternatives like adoption (D) is inappropriate and may violate patient autonomy.
NEW QUESTION # 185
A 45-year-old woman presents to your clinic for follow-up regarding her asthma. She is planning to attend a cultural event that includes ceremonial burning of tobacco. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The best next step is to assess whether smoke exposure is a known trigger for this patient's asthma. MCCQE objectives emphasize patient-centred, culturally safe care and risk assessment before giving directive advice.
Ceremonial tobacco burning can produce smoke exposure similar to other irritants; however, not all patients react the same way, and the clinician should first clarify the patient's history of symptom provocation with smoke (tobacco, incense, campfire) and the severity of prior reactions. This information guides individualized prevention strategies, such as ensuring optimal controller use, carrying a reliever inhaler, positioning away from dense smoke, limiting duration of exposure, and having an action plan if symptoms develop.
Updating the chart to indicate the patient smokes is inappropriate because participation in a ceremony does not equal smoking. General counselling about tobacco health effects can be relevant but is not the immediate priority and may be culturally insensitive if it ignores the context. Advising avoidance may unnecessarily disrupt culturally important participation and should come only after assessing risk and discussing mitigation options.
NEW QUESTION # 186
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