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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Topic 1: Physician Activities | 50% | - Management - Psychosocial Aspects - Communication - Professional Behaviours |
| Topic 2: Dimensions of Care | 50% | - Acute Care - Assessment and Diagnosis - Chronic Care - Health Promotion and Illness Prevention |
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NEW QUESTION # 98
A 32-year-old woman presents to the office with questions related to the mRNA vaccines that are approved for COVID-19. She is a health care worker. She gave birth to a healthy child 2 months ago. Before being immunized, which one of the following is the most important detail to elicit from the patient's history?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The most important pre-vaccination history to elicit is any previous anaphylaxis to vaccine components.
mRNA COVID-19 vaccines (e.g., Pfizer-BioNTech and Moderna) may contain polyethylene glycol (PEG), a potential allergen. This is a contraindication to administration.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Infectious Disease & Immunization Chapter:
"Absolute contraindications to mRNA COVID-19 vaccination include a documented anaphylactic reaction to a component of the vaccine such as polyethylene glycol (PEG)." MCCQE1 Objectives - Population Health > Preventive Medicine > Immunizations:
"The candidate must be able to assess for contraindications prior to immunization, including anaphylaxis to previous vaccines or components." Breastfeeding and occupational exposure (Options B and D) do not preclude vaccination. Current immunosuppression (Option C) may affect vaccine efficacy but is not a contraindication unless specifically advised.
NEW QUESTION # 99
You are caring for a 78-year-old man admitted to hospital for heart failure. On your rounds, he asks why he is not getting better. He has a history of heart failure, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes. He has an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator. This is his fourth admission in the past 6 months for acute decompensation of his heart failure. Between hospital admissions, he reports worsening shortness of breath and a progressive decline in function. Which one of the following is the next best step?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
This patient has end-stage heart failure with frequent hospitalizations, progressive symptoms, and functional decline. The most appropriate next step is to initiate a goals-of-care conversation, including acknowledgment of the prognosis.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Cardiology / Palliative Care:
"In advanced heart failure with recurrent admissions and functional decline, a goals-of-care discussion should be initiated to align treatment with patient values." MCCQE1 Objectives (Cardiology > 34-4 / ELOM > 90-2):
"Candidates must recognize end-stage illness and provide appropriate communication and palliative care planning." Deactivating the defibrillator (B) may be appropriate later but should follow a goals-of-care conversation.
Reassuring (C) ignores the true clinical trajectory.
NEW QUESTION # 100
During an office visit, your 14-year-old patient requests a prescription for oral contraceptives. The province where you are working does not have a statutory age of consent. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: E
Explanation:
In Canada, a minor may consent to medical care if the physician believes they have the capacity to understand the nature, benefits, and risks. This is known as the "mature minor doctrine." Capacity is based on understanding, not age.
Toronto Notes 2023 - ELOM, "Consent and Capacity" Section:
"A minor may consent to treatment if they demonstrate sufficient maturity and understanding. It is the physician's responsibility to assess capacity prior to prescribing." MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 99-3: Consent and Confidentiality):
"Candidates must assess the patient's ability to understand and make informed decisions, regardless of age." Prescribing without assessment (B) is premature. Reporting to child services (A) is only necessary if there are signs of abuse or coercion. Parental involvement (C) is not mandatory. Refusal based on age (E) contradicts legal and ethical practice.
NEW QUESTION # 101
You receive a note from a pharmacist about your 82-year-old patient who is taking oxycodone extended- release 20 mg 3 times daily for spinal stenosis. The pharmacist suggests that you consider tapering the medication. Your patient has been taking his current dosage for 1 year. When you saw him a month ago, he was functioning well with no adverse effects from the medication. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Long-term opioid therapy requires ongoing assessment of benefits, risks, function, adverse effects, and safety, particularly in older adults. MCCQE objectives emphasize regular reassessment before making changes to chronic controlled medications. Although the pharmacist has appropriately raised concern about prolonged opioid use, the patient was reported one month ago to be functioning well without adverse effects.
The appropriate next step is to reassess the patient directly-including pain control, functional status, cognition, fall risk, constipation, signs of misuse, and overall goals of care-before altering therapy.
Automatic dose reduction without evaluation may destabilize pain control. Immediate referral to a specialist is unnecessary if the patient is stable and well managed. Adjunct therapies such as physiotherapy may be considered but should not replace proper reassessment.
Shared decision-making is essential. If reassessment reveals limited benefit, adverse effects, or safety concerns, a gradual taper can then be discussed. Clinical decisions regarding opioids should be individualized rather than based solely on duration of use.
NEW QUESTION # 102
A 42-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of severe pain in her right eye. On examination, you notice a right conjunctival injection that is worst adjacent to the iris. Direct and consensual responses to light are intact but sluggish, with severe photophobia in the right pupil is slightly smaller than the left. The patient's visual acuity is 20/20 on the left and 20/40 on the right. Visual field testing results are normal. Intraocular pressure findings are normal. Slit-lamp examination findings of the cornea are normal, and there are no cells in the anterior chamber. You are unable to visualize her fundus. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The most likely diagnosis is acute anterior uveitis (iritis). The key MCCQE clinical pattern is painful red eye with ciliary flush (injection worst adjacent to the iris/limbus) and marked photophobia, especially consensual photophobia, which strongly points to inflammation of the iris and ciliary body. The sluggish light response and miosis (smaller pupil) are also typical of iritis due to sphincter spasm and inflammation. Intraocular pressure is normal, helping to rule out acute angle-closure glaucoma, which usually presents with elevated IOP, corneal haze, and a mid-dilated fixed pupil. Optic neuritis classically causes decreased color vision and pain with eye movement rather than ciliary flush. Viral conjunctivitis causes diffuse conjunctival injection and irritation/grittiness, not severe pain with consensual photophobia. Scleritis causes deep "boring" pain and violaceous scleral hue, not miosis/consensual photophobia as dominant features. Difficulty visualizing the fundus can occur with significant miosis.
NEW QUESTION # 103
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