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ACDIS Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient Sample Questions (Q47-Q52):

NEW QUESTION # 47
A CDI specialist is writing a query and including information from another facility's EHR via shared notes. Understanding that the ability to view shared notes may be revoked by the patient at any time, and to ensure HIPAA guidelines are followed, which of the following elements are BEST to include when sending the query?

A. Provider name, date of shared note, specific documentation, and any follow-up procedure
B. Location of shared note, date of shared note, provider name, and specific documentation
C. Provider name, date of shared note, follow-up procedure, and date of review
D. Location of shared note, provider name, specific documentation, and any follow-up procedure

Answer: B

Explanation:
When a CDI query references information from an externally shared note, best practice is to include enough identifying detail so the provider can locate and validate the source even if access is later revoked or if the shared record becomes unavailable. From an outpatient CDI and HIPAA-aligned workflow perspective, the query should clearly cite: where the information came from (the location of the shared note within the EHR/external record set), who authored it (provider name), when it was created (date of shared note), and the specific clinical documentation being referenced (the relevant statement/findings). This supports transparency, auditability, and minimizes the risk of misattribution or relying on inaccessible information. Options B-D are missing one or more critical elements-most notably the date and/or location of the shared note-making it harder to verify the source. Including "follow-up procedure" is not the priority for HIPAA-compliant source identification; the key need is traceability of the external documentation used to support the clarification request.

NEW QUESTION # 48
Which of the following conditions is commonly treated with the medication sertraline?

A. Heart failure
B. Schizophrenia
C. Depression
D. Asthma

Answer: C

Explanation:
Sertraline is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) most commonly used to treat depressive disorders and several anxiety-related conditions. In outpatient chart review, recognizing medication-condition relationships supports accurate problem list maintenance and compliant diagnosis reporting, but the diagnosis must still be clearly documented as assessed/managed at the encounter. Depression is the best match because SSRIs like sertraline are first-line pharmacologic therapy for major depressive disorder and are frequently continued long-term with monitoring for symptom control, side effects, and functional status. Schizophrenia is primarily treated with antipsychotic medications; sertraline may be used only as an adjunct if a comorbid depressive or anxiety disorder is present, so it is not the common primary treatment. Asthma management centers on bronchodilators and inhaled corticosteroids, not SSRIs. Heart failure therapy involves guideline-directed cardiac medications (e.g., beta-blockers, ACE inhibitors/ARNI, diuretics), and sertraline is not a standard heart failure treatment. Outpatient CDI education emphasizes documenting the specific mental health diagnosis, current status (stable/worsening), and treatment plan to support coding.

NEW QUESTION # 49
A patient is seen in the obstetrical clinic, 6 weeks postpartum. She presents with resting heart rate of 58 BPM, initial blood pressure of 154/90, and respiratory rate of 20. She also complains of slight headaches, denies visual changes, and has no evidence of peripheral edema. History is significant for smoking and obesity. A blood pressure reading of 160/88 is taken at the end of the visit. The provider documents hypertension. Which of the following query opportunities is MOST appropriate?

A. Association of hypertension to smoking
B. Whether the hypertension was pre-existing or developed during pregnancy
C. A more specific diagnosis, such as pre-eclampsia or eclampsia
D. Hypertensive crisis - unspecified

Answer: B

Explanation:
In obstetric and postpartum coding, the most important clarification is the type/timing of hypertension because ICD-10-CM has distinct categories for chronic (pre-existing) hypertension, gestational hypertension, and hypertensive disorders that persist into or present during the postpartum period. At 6 weeks postpartum with elevated readings (including a systolic of 160) and headache, the documentation "hypertension" is not specific enough to determine whether this represents chronic hypertension that predates pregnancy, gestational hypertension that has not resolved, or another pregnancy-related hypertensive disorder requiring different obstetric coding and follow-up. ACDIS outpatient CDI guidance prioritizes queries that resolve coding-impactful ambiguity using clinically supported options without leading the provider. While postpartum preeclampsia could be a clinical consideration, the note does not provide key supporting elements (e.g., proteinuria or other definitive severe-feature criteria), so jumping directly to preeclampsia/eclampsia is less appropriate than clarifying onset and relationship to pregnancy. Linking hypertension to smoking is not a standard required linkage for diagnosis coding, and "hypertensive crisis" is not supported by the documentation provided.

NEW QUESTION # 50
Which of the following is the MOST compliant provider query?

A. "According to a visit last year, this patient has a history of alcohol use; quit two years ago; previously drank 6-9 beers daily, 10-12 beers on weekend. Patient now attends AA meetings. Is the patient's alcohol use now in remission?"
B. "Noted that the patient has skin that is 'warm and dry with no rashes or lesions'; however, nursing documentation describes a 'stage 3 sacral pressure ulcer' requiring wet-to-dry dressing changes. Please add the pressure ulcer to your ED assessment note if appropriate."
C. "The patient has a past medical history of CAD, HF, and COPD. Please document these conditions during the encounter today if they are still being treated."
D. "Noted that this patient is being referred for a colonoscopy. She has no documented GI symptoms and has a family history of colon cancer. When this patient is seen, please clarify whether this is a screening colonoscopy or diagnostic colonoscopy."

Answer: D

Explanation:
The most compliant query is the one that is clinically supported, non-leading, and focused on clarifying documentation for correct reporting and medical necessity-without directing the provider to "add" diagnoses or document conditions for payment purposes. Option A presents relevant clinical context (no GI symptoms; family history) and asks the provider to clarify whether the planned colonoscopy is screening or diagnostic, which is a legitimate documentation clarification affecting correct code selection and coverage rules. It does not imply a desired answer and does not instruct the provider to document additional diagnoses. Option B is problematic because it instructs the provider to "document these conditions" if treated, which can be perceived as prompting and is not tied to encounter-specific indicators. Option C is based primarily on historical information and asks a yes/no about remission, which can be leading and may not reflect current-visit evaluation. Option D effectively asks the provider to add a diagnosis based on nursing documentation, which risks leading language and requires provider confirmation and assessment. Therefore, A is most compliant.

NEW QUESTION # 51
Which of the following is the major difference between MIPS and APMs?

A. APM participation is required by eligible providers (non-participation results in a financial penalty), and MIPS participation is voluntary.
B. MIPS participation is required by eligible providers (non-participation results in a financial penalty), and APM participation is voluntary.
C. MIPS and APM participation is voluntary by eligible providers.
D. MIPS and APM participation is required of eligible providers.

Answer: B

Explanation:
MIPS (Merit-based Incentive Payment System) is the default Medicare Quality Payment Program pathway for most eligible clinicians who are not sufficiently participating in an Advanced APM. In practice, if a clinician is MIPS-eligible and does not meet reporting requirements (or performs poorly), Medicare applies a negative payment adjustment-so "non-participation" effectively carries financial risk. APMs (Alternative Payment Models), especially Advanced APMs, are not automatically required for all clinicians; they are model-based arrangements (often tied to specific payers, contracts, patient populations, and risk/quality terms) that clinicians typically enter through organizational participation decisions. A key operational difference emphasized in outpatient CDI education is that MIPS performance hinges on accurate, complete documentation supporting quality measures and resource use across a broad clinician population, whereas APM participation depends on being in a qualifying model and meeting its participation/threshold rules. Therefore, MIPS functions as the required/default track with potential penalties, while APM participation is elective and model-dependent.

NEW QUESTION # 52
......

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