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ACDIS CCDS-O Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • CDI Program Concepts: Department Metrics and Provider Education: Covers provider education development, CDI performance metrics including query rates, RAF progression, HCC capture, ACO
  • MSSP impact, and physician documentation's effect on quality reporting.
Topic 2
  • Healthcare regulations, reimbursement, and documentation requirements related to the Official Guidelines for
Topic 3
  • Risk Adjustment Models and Impact of Documentation and Coding: Covers CMS-HCC model fundamentals, RAF scoring, Medicare Advantage payments, hierarchies, disease interactions, and compliant HCC reporting requirements.
Topic 4
  • Coding and Reporting, the Outpatient Prospective Payment System (OPPS), and provider coding
Topic 5
  • and billing: Covers Official Coding Guidelines, OPPS reimbursement (APCs), and professional billing concepts including CPT E
  • M codes and Medicare Physician Fee Schedule documentation.

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ACDIS Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient Sample Questions (Q88-Q93):

NEW QUESTION # 88
An 81-year-old is seen by his family physician for continued confusion and poor memory. PMH includes HTN, GERD, and Parkinson's. The provider reviews the neurologist's consultation notes, evaluates the patient's current mental state, and addresses the diagnoses of HTN, GERD, and Parkinson's. The provider's problem list included: Dementia, GERD, HTN, and Parkinson's. Which of the following is the first-listed diagnosis?

Answer: D

Explanation:
In the outpatient setting, the first-listed diagnosis is the condition chiefly responsible for the services provided during the encounter. Here, the stated reason for the visit is continued confusion and poor memory, and the provider specifically evaluates the patient's current mental state and references neurology consultation notes-actions that directly support assessment of a cognitive disorder. While HTN, GERD, and Parkinson's are also addressed and may be reportable if they meet encounter relevance (e.g., monitored, evaluated, assessed/managed, or treated), they are not the primary driver for today's visit based on the presenting complaint. Outpatient documentation and coding guidance emphasizes sequencing the diagnosis that best explains the visit's main purpose first, with additional coexisting conditions listed afterward when they impact care. Since "dementia" is on the active problem list and aligns with the patient's cognitive symptoms and the physician's mental-status evaluation, it is the most appropriate first-listed diagnosis among the options.


NEW QUESTION # 89
What diagnoses are included in code category N18, chronic kidney disease?

Answer: A

Explanation:
ICD-10-CM category N18 (Chronic kidney disease) is used to report CKD by stage, including stage-based descriptors and end stage renal disease (ESRD). Within N18, codes identify CKD stage 1 through stage 5, ESRD (stage 5D), and CKD unspecified. Outpatient CDI review focuses on ensuring providers document the stage (often supported by eGFR trends) because stage drives correct code selection and accurately reflects disease severity for risk, quality, and medical necessity. Options that include dialysis are not part of N18 itself; dialysis status and encounter codes are reported elsewhere (e.g., dialysis dependence/status codes), not as N18 category diagnoses. AKI (acute kidney injury) and ATN (acute tubular necrosis) are acute renal conditions and are coded outside N18. Likewise, polycystic kidney disease and "uremia" are separate diagnoses with their own code categories. Therefore, the set that correctly matches what N18 represents is CKD stage-based diagnoses such as CKD stage 3, more advanced/severe CKD stages, and ESRD.


NEW QUESTION # 90
A CDI specialist read the most recent AHA Coding Clinic that provided updated guidance related to a prior AHA Coding Clinic. The CDI specialist should

Answer: C

Explanation:
AHA Coding Clinic guidance functions as an authoritative interpretive resource for correct ICD-10-CM/PCS code assignment when official guidelines or code descriptors need clarification. When Coding Clinic publishes an update that revises, clarifies, or supersedes earlier advice, outpatient CDI practice is to operationalize the newest guidance prospectively-meaning it should be applied going forward from the publication/effective timeframe of that update. This supports consistent, defensible coding and reduces compliance risk by aligning current reporting with the most current official interpretation. Applying the original advice for a calendar or fiscal year (choices A and B) is not how Coding Clinic updates are intended to be implemented; the governing principle is "most current advice controls" once released. Similarly, automatically applying updated guidance retroactively to cases from last year (choice D) is not routine CDI practice; retrospective rebilling or recoding is typically limited, policy-driven, and subject to payer rules, auditing constraints, and organizational compliance decisions. Therefore, the best action is to use the updated Coding Clinic guidance from the date it is published/implemented forward.


NEW QUESTION # 91
Which of the following is designed to reduce claims denials and appeals by providing one-on-one feedback to the provider to increase accuracy in specific areas?

Answer: C

Explanation:
Targeted Probe and Educate (TPE) is an education-focused review initiative intended to improve billing accuracy and reduce future denials by combining targeted claim review with direct provider/supplier feedback. In outpatient CDI terms, TPE aligns with a "fix-forward" approach: auditors identify specific error patterns (often documentation, medical necessity, coding, or coverage rule issues), then provide one-on-one education so the provider can correct processes and documentation habits. This is distinct from Recovery Audit Contractors (RACs), which primarily identify and recoup improper payments, often after the fact, and are not structured as an individualized education cycle. The OIG Work Plan identifies oversight priorities and areas of potential fraud/waste/abuse; it does not deliver provider-level coaching to reduce denials. CERT measures Medicare improper payment rates through sampling and can drive policy/education broadly, but it is not designed as individualized, iterative provider education. Because TPE is specifically built around targeted review plus direct education to prevent repeat errors and reduce appeals, it is the best answer.


NEW QUESTION # 92
Which of the following contributes to the risk adjustment score under the CMS-HCC model?

Answer: D

Explanation:
Under the CMS-HCC risk adjustment methodology, the RAF is calculated primarily from two categories of inputs: (1) demographic/enrollment eligibility factors and (2) diagnosis codes that map to HCCs based on documented, reportable conditions. Eligibility status matters because Medicare models differentiate beneficiaries by factors such as aged versus disabled status and other enrollment characteristics that affect expected cost. The second major driver is the set of valid, supported ICD-10-CM codes reported for the beneficiary during the data collection period; only certain chronic, clinically significant conditions map to HCCs, and they must be documented as active and applicable to the encounter and coded correctly. In ambulatory CDI, this is why accurate condition capture, specificity, and linkage (e.g., cause/manifestation relationships) are emphasized-because reported conditions directly affect the patient's risk profile and the expected cost benchmark. By contrast, income status is not a standard CMS-HCC input, "previous risk score" is not itself an input variable, and utilization outcomes like cost of care or readmissions are not used to compute RAF (they may be evaluated separately in quality/cost programs).


NEW QUESTION # 93
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