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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Server Hardware Installation and Management | 18% | - Given a scenario, deploy and manage storage - Summarize power and cooling components - Given a scenario, configure and manage server components - Given a scenario, install physical hardware |
| Server Administration | 30% | - Given a scenario, configure security features - Given a scenario, install and configure an operating system - Given a scenario, perform server management tasks - Explain the purpose of virtualization and containerization - Explain the purpose and operation of scripting - Given a scenario, configure networking |
| Troubleshooting | 28% | - Given a scenario, troubleshoot connectivity issues - Given a scenario, troubleshoot storage failures - Given a scenario, troubleshoot software failures - Given a scenario, troubleshoot security issues - Given a scenario, troubleshoot hardware failures - Explain the troubleshooting methodology |
| Security and Disaster Recovery | 24% | - Given a scenario, implement server hardening techniques - Explain logical security concepts - Summarize data security concepts - Given a scenario, implement backup and restore procedures - Explain disaster recovery and high availability concepts - Explain physical security concepts |
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NEW QUESTION # 595
A server administrator is configuring a new file server with three drives. Resiliency and protection of data are the most important requirements for this new server. Which of the following RAID types best meets these requirements?
Answer: B
Explanation:
RAID 5 provides resiliency and data protection by distributing parity information across all three drives, allowing the server to continue operating even if one drive fails. This makes it ideal for a setup with three drives where data protection is a priority.
NEW QUESTION # 596
A server administrator wants to check the open ports on a server. Which of the following commands should the administrator use to complete the task?
Answer: A
Explanation:
netstat is a command-line tool that displays network connections, routing tables, interface statistics, and more. The -a option shows all listening and non-listening sockets on the server. This can help check the open ports on a server and identify any unwanted or malicious connections. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/windows-commands/netstat
NEW QUESTION # 597
A server administrator is tasked with upgrading the network on a server to 40Gbps. After installing the card, which of the following connectors should the administrator use?
Answer: B
Explanation:
QSFP+ (Quad Small Form-Factor Pluggable Plus): This transceiver type is designed specifically to handle 40Gbps network speeds. QSFP+ connectors are hot-swappable and support various cable types, including fiber optic and copper (DAC).
10GigE: While a valid network technology, 10GigE only supports up to 10Gbps, not the required
40Gbps.
SFP (Small Form-factor Pluggable): A common transceiver type, but the standard SFP only supports a maximum of 1Gbps.
SFP+ (Enhanced Small Form-factor Pluggable): Supports up to 10Gbps, not sufficient for 40Gbps in this scenario.
NEW QUESTION # 598
Which of the following is the most effective way to mitigate risks associated with privacy-related data leaks when sharing with a third party?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The most effective way to mitigate risks associated with privacy-related data leaks when sharing with a third party is customer data encryption and masking. Encryption is a process of transforming data into an unreadable format that can only be decrypted with a key or password. Masking is a process of hiding or replacing sensitive data with fake or meaningless dat a. By encrypting and masking customer data, the organization can protect the confidentiality and integrity of the data and prevent unauthorized access or disclosure by the third party.
NEW QUESTION # 599
A server technician downloaded new firmware from the manufacturer's website. The technician then attempted to install the firmware on the server, but the installation failed, stating the file is potentially corrupt. Which of the following should the technician have checked prior to installing the firmware?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A MD5 checksum is a value that is calculated from a file using a cryptographic hash function. A MD5 checksum is used to verify the integrity of a file by comparing it with the original value provided by the manufacturer or the source. If the MD5 checksums match, it means that the file is authentic and has not been corrupted or tampered with. If the MD5 checksums do not match, it means that the file is potentially corrupt or malicious and should not be installed12. A DLF configuration (A) is a setting that determines how a dynamic link library (DLL) is loaded into memory and executed by an application. A DLF configuration does not check the integrity of a file. A MBR failure (B) is a problem that occurs when the master boot record (MBR) of a disk is damaged or corrupted, preventing the system from booting. A MBR failure does not check the integrity of a file. ECC support is a feature that enables error-correcting code (ECC) memory to detect and correct data errors in RAM. ECC support does not check the integrity of a file. References: 1
https://www.comparitech.com/net-admin/file-integrity-monitoring-tools/
https://csrc.nist.gov/CSRC/media/Presentations/Firmware-Integrity-Verification-Monitoring-and-Re/images-me
NEW QUESTION # 600
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