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NEW QUESTION # 314
A systems administrate wants to implement a backup solution. the solution needs to allow recovery of the entire system, including the operating system, in case of a disaster. Which of the following backup types should the administrator consider?
Answer: A
Explanation:
An image backup, also known as a full system backup, captures the entire contents of a system, including the operating system, applications, settings, and all data. This type of backup allows for a complete recovery of the system in case of a disaster, as it includes everything needed to restore the system to its previous state.
This makes it the ideal choice for a systems administrator who needs to ensure the ability to recover the entire system, including the OS.
References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, domain on Security Operations.
NEW QUESTION # 315
Which of the following describes an executive team that is meeting in a board room and testing the company's incident response plan?
Answer: D
Explanation:
A tabletop exercise involves the executive team or key stakeholders discussing and testing the company's incident response plan in a simulated environment. These exercises are low-stress, discussion-based, and help to validate the plan's effectiveness by walking through different scenarios without disrupting actual operations. It is an essential part of testing business continuity and incident response strategies.
* Continuity of operations refers to the ability of an organization to continue functioning during and after a disaster but doesn't specifically involve simulations like tabletop exercises.
* Capacity planning is related to ensuring the infrastructure can handle growth, not incident response testing.
* Parallel processing refers to running multiple processes simultaneously, which is unrelated to testing an incident response plan.
NEW QUESTION # 316
A company performs a vulnerability assessment and gets the following results:
Vulnerability | Server location | CVSS score
1 | Internet | 9.8
2 | Internal | 4.0
3 | Internet | 4.0
4 | Internal | 9.8
Which of the following vulnerabilities should the company patch first?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Vulnerability 1 should be patched first because it has both the highest severity and the highest exposure. A CVSS score of 9.8 indicates a critical vulnerability, and the affected server is internet-facing. Internet-facing systems are directly exposed to external threat actors, automated scanning, exploit kits, and opportunistic attacks. Vulnerability 4 also has a CVSS score of 9.8, but it is internal, so the exposure is lower unless an attacker already has access inside the environment. Vulnerabilities 2 and 3 have lower CVSS scores and therefore lower technical severity. Security+ prioritization considers severity, asset exposure, exploitability, and business impact. The critical internet-facing vulnerability is the most urgent.
NEW QUESTION # 317
An analyst is evaluating the implementation of Zero Trust principles within the data plane. Which of the following would be most relevant for the analyst to evaluate?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The data plane, also known as the forwarding plane, is the part of the network that carries user traffic and data. It is responsible for moving packets from one device to another based on the routing and switching decisions made by the control plane. The data plane is a critical component of the Zero Trust architecture, as it is where most of the attacks and breaches occur. Therefore, implementing Zero Trust principles within the data plane can help to improve the security and resilience of the network.
One of the key principles of Zero Trust is to assume breach and minimize the blast radius and segment access. This means that the network should be divided into smaller and isolated segments or zones, each with its own security policies and controls. This way, if one segment is compromised, the attacker cannot easily move laterally to other segments and access more resources or data. This principle is also known as threat scope reduction, as it reduces the scope and impact of a potential threat.
The other options are not as relevant for the data plane as threat scope reduction. Secured zones are a concept related to the control plane, which is the part of the network that makes routing and switching decisions. Subject role is a concept related to the identity plane, which is the part of the network that authenticates and authorizes users and devices. Adaptive identity is a concept related to the policy plane, which is the part of the network that defines and enforces the security policies and rules.
Reference = https://bing.com/search?q=Zero+Trust+data+plane
https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/security/zero-trust/deploy/data
NEW QUESTION # 318
A company decided to reduce the cost of its annual cyber insurance policy by removing the coverage for ransomware attacks.
Which of the following analysis elements did the company most likely use in making this decision?
Answer: B
Explanation:
ARO (Annualized Rate of Occurrence) is an analysis element that measures the frequency or likelihood of an event happening in a given year. ARO is often used in risk assessment and management, as it helps to estimate the potential loss or impact of an event. A company can use ARO to calculate the annualized loss expectancy (ALE) of an event, which is the product of ARO and the single loss expectancy (SLE). ALE represents the expected cost of an event per year, and can be used to compare with the cost of implementing a security control or purchasing an insurance policy.
The company most likely used ARO in making the decision to remove the coverage for ransomware attacks from its cyber insurance policy. The company may have estimated the ARO of ransomware attacks based on historical data, industry trends, or threat intelligence, and found that the ARO was low or negligible. The company may have also calculated the ALE of ransomware attacks, and found that the ALE was lower than the cost of the insurance policy. Therefore, the company decided to reduce the cost of its annual cyber insurance policy by removing the coverage for ransomware attacks, as it deemed the risk to be acceptable or manageable.
IMTTR (Incident Management Team Training and Readiness), RTO (Recovery Time Objective), and MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures) are not analysis elements that the company most likely used in making the decision to remove the coverage for ransomware attacks from its cyber insurance policy. IMTTR is a process of preparing and training the incident management team to respond effectively to security incidents. IMTTR does not measure the frequency or impact of an event, but rather the capability and readiness of the team. RTO is a metric that defines the maximum acceptable time for restoring a system or service after a disruption. RTO does not measure the frequency or impact of an event, but rather the availability and continuity of the system or service. MTBF is a metric that measures the average time between failures of a system or component. MTBF does not measure the frequency or impact of an event, but rather the reliability and performance of the system or component.
Reference = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 97-98; Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 5.2 - Risk Management, 0:00 - 3:00.
NEW QUESTION # 319
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