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CompTIA CS0-003 Exam Syllabus Topics:

SectionWeightObjectives
Topic 1: Security Operations33%- Automation and orchestration
  • 1. SOAR platforms and workflows
  • 2. Scripting and automation tools
- Threat intelligence
  • 1. Intelligence cycle and analysis
  • 2. Indicators of compromise (IOCs) and indicators of attack (IOAs)
  • 3. Sources and types of threat intelligence
- Security monitoring concepts and tools
  • 1. Endpoint security monitoring
  • 2. Network traffic analysis
  • 3. SIEM deployment, configuration, and use
  • 4. Log management and analysis
Topic 2: Reporting and Communication17%- Reporting requirements and standards
  • 1. Compliance and regulatory reporting
  • 2. Technical vs. executive reporting
- Security awareness and training
  • 1. Delivering training and awareness programs
  • 2. Developing security content
- Data visualization and presentation
  • 1. Creating effective security reports
  • 2. Communicating risks and recommendations
Topic 3: Vulnerability Management30%- Cloud and virtual environment vulnerabilities
  • 1. Cloud security posture management
  • 2. Container and virtualization security
- Vulnerability assessment processes
  • 1. Vulnerability validation and prioritization
  • 2. Scanning tools and methodologies
  • 3. Configuration and compliance scanning
- Risk assessment and mitigation
  • 1. Risk frameworks and analysis
  • 2. Remediation strategies and controls
  • 3. Patch management and system hardening
Topic 4: Incident Response Management20%- Coordination and communication
  • 1. Internal and external stakeholder coordination
  • 2. Legal and regulatory considerations
- Incident response lifecycle
  • 1. Post-incident activities
  • 2. Preparation and planning
  • 3. Containment, eradication, and recovery
  • 4. Detection and analysis
- Digital forensics basics
  • 1. Evidence collection and preservation
  • 2. Forensic analysis techniques

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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q370-Q375):

NEW QUESTION # 370
A cybersecurity team quarantines a virtual machine (VM) that has triggered alerts. However, this action does not stop the threat. Similar alerts are occurring for other VMs in the same broadcast domain. Which of the following steps in the incident response process should the team take next?

Answer: B

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
The scenario indicates the threat is still active and is appearing across multiple VMs in the same broadcast domain (suggesting lateral movement or propagation within that Layer 2 segment). Since quarantine of a single VM did not stop the threat, the appropriate next step is to broaden containment by isolating the affected subnet / network segment to prevent further spread.
The Sybex CySA+ Study Guide emphasizes that after identifying an incident in progress, responders should move into containment and that containment activities include segmentation and isolation:
Exact extract (Sybex Study Guide):
"After identifying a potential incident in progress, responders should take immediate action to contain the damage... Potential containment activities include network segmentation, isolation, and removal of affected systems." It also explains how segmentation (quarantine VLAN) is used to contain compromised systems and protect other systems:
Exact extract (Sybex Study Guide):
"During the early stages of an incident... [responders] built a separate virtual LAN (VLAN) to contain those systems... Putting the systems on this network segment provides some degree of isolation..." Because the activity is occurring across the broadcast domain, isolating just one VM isn't enough; the team should continue containment by isolating the subnet/segment where the issue is spreading (Option D). Moving to eradication (Option C) before containment is effective risks continued spread and loss of control.


NEW QUESTION # 371
A cryptocurrency service company is primarily concerned with ensuring the accuracy of the data on one of its systems. A security analyst has been tasked with prioritizing vulnerabilities for remediation for the system. The analyst will use the following CVSSv3.1 impact metrics for prioritization:

Which of the following vulnerabilities should be prioritized for remediation?

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 372
A security analyst is tasked with prioritizing vulnerabilities for remediation. The relevant company security policies are shown below:
Security Policy 1006: Vulnerability Management
1. The Company shall use the CVSSv3.1 Base Score Metrics (Exploitability and Impact) to prioritize the remediation of security vulnerabilities.
2. In situations where a choice must be made between confidentiality and availability, the Company shall prioritize confidentiality of data over availability of systems and data.
3. The Company shall prioritize patching of publicly available systems and services over patching of internally available system.
According to the security policy, which of the following vulnerabilities should be the highest priority to patch?

Answer: A

Explanation:
To determine the correct priority, you must filter the options by applying the rules from Security Policy 1006 in the order of importance dictated by the scenario.
"The Company shall prioritize patching of publicly available systems and services over patching of internally available system."
* Option A: Internal System
* Option B: External System (Keep)
* Option C: External System (Keep)
* Option D: Internal System
Result: Eliminate Options A and D. We are now choosing between B and C.
"In situations where a choice must be made between confidentiality and availability, the Company shall prioritize confidentiality of data over availability of systems and data." To apply this, you must read the CVSS v3.1 Vector String for the remaining options. The relevant metrics are C (Confidentiality) and A (Availability).
* Option B (CAP.SHIELD): C:H / I:N / A:N
* Confidentiality: High (C:H)
* Availability: None (A:N)
* Interpretation: This vulnerability allows for a significant breach of data confidentiality.
* Option C (LOKI.DAGGER): C:N / I:N / A:H
* Confidentiality: None (C:N)
* Availability: High (A:H)
* Interpretation: This vulnerability allows for a significant disruption of service (DoS).
Conclusion: Since the policy explicitly prioritizes Confidentiality (Option B) over Availability (Option C), Option B is the highest priority.
The exam expects you to parse raw CVSS strings to assess risk. Here is the breakdown for the correct answer (Option B):
Metric
Code
Value
Meaning
AV
AV:N
Network
The vulnerability is exploitable remotely via the network (most dangerous).
AC
AC:L
Low
No complex conditions are required to exploit.
PR
PR:N
None
No privileges are required (unauthenticated).
UI
UI:N
None
No user interaction is required.
C
C:H
High
Confidentiality Impact. Total loss of confidentiality.
A
A:N
None
Availability Impact. No impact to uptime.


NEW QUESTION # 373
A laptop that is company owned and managed is suspected to have malware. The company implemented centralized security logging. Which of the following log sources will confirm the malware infection?

Answer: B

Explanation:
XDR logs will confirm the malware infection because XDR is a system that collects and analyzes data from multiple sources, such as endpoints, networks, cloud applications, and email security, to detect and respond to advanced threats12. XDR can provide a comprehensive view of the attack chain and the context of the malware infection. Firewall logs, IDS logs, and MFA logs are not sufficient to confirm the malware infection, as they only provide partial or indirect information about the network traffic, intrusion attempts, or user authentication. References: Cybersecurity Analyst+ - CompTIA, XDR: definition and benefits for MSPs| WatchGuard Blog, Extended detection and response - Wikipedia


NEW QUESTION # 374
A group of hacktivists has breached and exfiltrated data from several of a bank's competitors. Given the following network log output:
ID
Source
Destination
Protocol
Service
1
172.16.1.1
172.16.1.10
ARP
AddrResolve
2
172.16.1.10
172.16.1.20
TCP 135
RPC Kerberos
3
172.16.1.10
172.16.1.30
TCP 445
SMB WindowsExplorer
4
172.16.1.30
5.29.1.5
TCP 443
HTTPS Browser.exe
5
11.4.11.28
172.16.1.1
TCP 53
DNS Unknown
6
20.109.209.108
172.16.1.1
TCP 443
HTTPS WUS
7
172.16.1.25
bank.backup.com
TCP 21
FTP FileZilla
Which of the following represents the greatest concerns with regard to potential data exfiltration? (Select two.)

Answer: A,E

Explanation:
D (4: HTTPS traffic to an external IP - 5.29.1.5)
The log entry shows an internal system (172.16.1.30) communicating with an external IP (5.29.1.5) over TCP 443 (HTTPS) using Browser.exe.
HTTPS traffic to an unknown external IP could indicate data exfiltration, as attackers often use encrypted channels to disguise stolen data transfers.
G (7: FTP traffic to an external backup server - bank.backup.com)
The log entry indicates that an internal machine (172.16.1.25) is transferring data to bank.backup.com using FTP (port 21) and FileZilla.
FTP is a major concern because it is an outdated, unencrypted protocol that can be exploited for data exfiltration. If unauthorized, this could be a serious data breach.
Other Options:
A (ARP traffic) → Not a concern (Just address resolution)
B (RPC Kerberos traffic) → Normal for authentication
C (SMB traffic) → Internal file sharing
**E (DNS traffic) → Common, though could be exfiltration in some cases, but not in this log) F (WUS traffic) → Appears to be Windows Update Service traffic, likely legitimate


NEW QUESTION # 375
......

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