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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Topic 1: Clinical Documentation Review & Query Practices | 20% | - Query development, communication, and ethical standards - Concurrent and retrospective chart review methodologies - Documentation gap identification and resolution |
| Topic 2: Quality, Risk Adjustment & Health Initiatives | 15% | - Severity of Illness (SOI) / Risk of Mortality (ROM) - Risk adjustment models and documentation impact - Quality reporting, public reporting, and compliance programs |
| Topic 3: Healthcare Regulations, Reimbursement & Documentation Requirements – IPPS | 15% | - Inpatient Prospective Payment System (IPPS) fundamentals - Documentation responsibilities of medical and clinical staff - Medicare Severity Diagnostic Related Groups (MS-DRGs) |
| Topic 4: Clinical Knowledge & Disease Processes Application | 20% | - Clinical indicators, lab results, medications, diagnostic findings - Medical terminology, anatomy, physiology, pathophysiology - Disease processes across body systems applied to chart review |
| Topic 5: CDI Program Management & Professional Practice | 15% | - Ethics, HIPAA, and professional conduct - Program metrics, benchmarks, and performance measurement - Provider education and training strategies |
| Topic 6: Coding Guidelines & Official Reporting Standards | 15% | - Coding integrity and compliant documentation practices - ICD-10-CM/PCS Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting - AHIMA/ACDIS Guidelines for Compliant Query Practice |
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NEW QUESTION # 45
Which of the following principal diagnoses groups to MS-DRG 884, Organic Disturbances and Intellectual Disability?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Vascular dementia is the correct answer. CMS MS-DRG logic places qualifying vascular dementia diagnoses from category F01.- within MS-DRG 884, Organic Disturbances and Intellectual Disability. The FY 2026 CMS MS-DRG Definitions Manual specifically lists vascular dementia codes among the principal diagnoses assigned to MS-DRG 884.
MS-DRG assignment depends on the principal diagnosis code, major diagnostic category, procedures when applicable, and other grouper logic. Therefore, clinically related forms of dementia do not necessarily group to the same MS-DRG. Alzheimer's disease is classified primarily as a neurologic degenerative disorder and requires appropriate dementia manifestations where applicable. Alcohol-induced dementia is classified within substance-related mental and behavioral disorders, while Wernicke encephalopathy is associated with thiamine deficiency and follows different classification logic.
For CCDS practice, this question illustrates why documentation of dementia etiology and type matters.
Simply documenting "dementia" can produce a less specific code and may affect MS-DRG assignment, risk adjustment, severity representation, and quality data.
The CDI specialist should seek clarification only when the clinical record supports a more specific dementia type.
CCDS Reference Topics: MS-DRG assignment; mental disorders; dementia specificity; IPPS reimbursement.
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NEW QUESTION # 46
A CDI manager finds that cardiology providers receive repeated queries for heart-failure acuity and type.
Which educational intervention is MOST appropriate?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The most effective intervention is targeted, service-line-specific physician education based on actual documentation trends and clinically relevant examples.
Repeated queries for the same issue usually indicate a systematic documentation opportunity rather than isolated provider mistakes. Education should therefore show cardiologists how documentation of heart-failure type-such as systolic, diastolic, or combined-and acuity-acute, chronic, or acute on chronic- communicates the patient's clinical condition more precisely.
Using deidentified examples from the service line makes the education immediately relevant and enables physicians to recognize which clinical circumstances frequently generate clarification. Aggregate query data can demonstrate where documentation gaps occur without criticizing individual providers.
Sending an entire code book places coding responsibility on physicians and is unlikely to change documentation behavior. Stopping queries leaves unresolved clinical ambiguity. Framing the education around reduced reimbursement is also inappropriate because the goal of CDI education is accurate clinical representation, not coaching physicians toward higher-paying diagnoses.
The 2026 ACDIS/AHIMA query guidance identifies accurate representation of the patient's clinical status as the underlying purpose of CDI clarification.
CCDS Reference Topics: Physician education; communication; heart-failure specificity; query trend analysis.
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NEW QUESTION # 47
A patient with an indwelling urinary catheter develops fever, pyuria, and a positive urine culture during hospitalization. The physician documents "UTI" but does not state whether the infection is related to the catheter. What should the CDI specialist do?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The CDI specialist should query the provider regarding the cause-and-effect relationship between the urinary catheter and the infection. The simultaneous presence of a catheter and UTI does not, by itself, establish a device-related complication for coding.
A positive culture, pyuria, and fever may support infection, but attribution to an indwelling catheter requires appropriate provider documentation when the classification does not independently establish the relationship.
The query should present relevant facts neutrally: catheter placement and duration, fever, urinary symptoms when present, urinalysis, culture findings, antibiotic treatment, and existing UTI documentation. Possible responses should allow the physician to identify catheter-associated UTI, UTI unrelated to the catheter, another diagnosis, or inability to determine.
Option A improperly infers causation. Option C goes too far in the opposite direction; although asymptomatic bacteriuria is common in catheterized patients, the provider has documented UTI and the patient has clinical findings that may support infection. Option D similarly equates a test result with a complication diagnosis.
This is a classic CCDS cause-and-effect clarification issue and demonstrates why device-related complications require careful documentation.
CCDS Reference Topics: CAUTI; device-related complications; cause-and-effect queries; clinical indicators; quality reporting.
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NEW QUESTION # 48
Hospital A is developing a query policy. Open-ended queries will be encouraged. The provider is expected to document on the query form, which will be retained as part of the health record. Hospital A will remove any unanswered queries and shred them to avoid any incomplete forms within the health record. Which of the following is considered a high-risk query practice?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The high-risk practice is destroying unanswered queries. Query retention should be governed by an established organizational policy and should not depend on whether the provider answers the query.
Selectively destroying unanswered queries can create significant compliance, audit, and record-integrity concerns because it removes evidence of the documentation-clarification process.
ACDIS/AHIMA guidance has consistently required organizations to establish query-retention policies.
Queries may be retained as part of the permanent health record or maintained as a retrievable business record according to organizational policy and legal requirements. The current 2026 ACDIS/AHIMA query practice guidance supersedes all previous editions, reinforcing the importance of a standardized, defensible query process.
Keeping queries in the health record is not inherently problematic when policy defines them as part of that record. Likewise, a new diagnosis may be included in a multiple-choice query when it is supported by patient- specific clinical indicators and the choices remain nonleading. A yes/no query can also be compliant in defined circumstances, such as clarification of a diagnosis or relationship already documented.
Selective destruction is therefore the clear compliance risk.
CCDS Reference Topics: Query retention; compliance; organizational query policy; audit integrity.
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NEW QUESTION # 49
A patient is admitted with a stage 2 sacral pressure ulcer. During the hospitalization, the ulcer progresses and is documented as stage 3 at the same site. How should the pressure ulcer be reported?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The FY 2026 ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines specifically address a pressure ulcer that progresses to a higher stage during an inpatient admission. Two codes are assigned: one representing the site and stage present on admission and another representing the same ulcer site at the highest stage documented during the hospitalization.
Therefore, this patient's stage 2 sacral pressure ulcer on admission and subsequent progression to stage 3 must both be represented according to the applicable coding instructions.
The distinction is important for both clinical and quality purposes because the record must accurately show what condition existed when the patient entered the hospital and how the wound subsequently evolved.
Coding only the stage 3 ulcer would lose information about its status at admission. Coding only stage 2 would fail to represent the deterioration that occurred during the stay.
Pressure-ulcer staging is also one of the circumstances in which qualified non-provider clinician documentation, such as wound-care nursing documentation, may be used to establish stage when the diagnosis itself is appropriately documented.
For CDI, accurate wound location, stage, progression, and POA documentation are essential because advanced pressure injuries may influence MS-DRG severity and hospital quality reporting.
CCDS Reference Topics: Pressure ulcers; staging; POA; wound-care documentation; Official Guidelines.
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NEW QUESTION # 50
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