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Splunk SPLK-5003 Exam Syllabus Topics:

SectionWeightObjectives
Topic 1: Scaling Cybersecurity Defenses and DevSecOps15%- Security architecture at scale
  • 1. Scalable defense strategies
  • 2. DevSecOps integration
  • 3. Enterprise security operations design
Topic 2: Advanced Incident Response and Management10%- Incident response architecture
  • 1. Incident management optimization
  • 2. Investigation processes
  • 3. Response workflows
Topic 3: Advanced Automation and Orchestration10%- SOAR architecture
  • 1. Security orchestration
  • 2. Workflow automation
  • 3. Playbook design
Topic 4: Security Data Management20%- Data architecture design
  • 1. Data quality and governance
  • 2. Security data onboarding and normalization
  • 3. Data lifecycle management
Topic 5: Security Capability Selection, Placement and Configuration15%- Security control architecture
  • 1. Control placement strategies
  • 2. Capability integration
  • 3. Technology selection
Topic 6: Advanced Threat Intelligence and Analysis5%- Threat intelligence architecture
  • 1. Advanced threat analysis
  • 2. Threat-informed defense
  • 3. Threat intelligence integration
Topic 7: Measuring and Improving Security Program Effectiveness15%- Security metrics and performance
  • 1. Program maturity assessment
  • 2. Risk measurement
  • 3. Continuous improvement processes
Topic 8: Governance, Risk and Compliance10%- Security governance
  • 1. Risk management frameworks
  • 2. Policy alignment
  • 3. Compliance requirements

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Splunk Certified Cybersecurity Defense Architect Sample Questions (Q155-Q160):

NEW QUESTION # 155
An organization is securing an endpoint using application allowlisting. Which of the following processes is this technology heavily dependent on? (Choose all that apply.)

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
Application allowlisting depends heavily on change control and configuration management because approved software, versions, paths, hashes, publishers, and policy exceptions must be governed carefully. These processes ensure only authorized application changes are permitted while keeping endpoint configurations accurate and maintainable.


NEW QUESTION # 156
What distributed computing model can be used to enable analysis of data closest to the data source for real-time monitoring?

Answer: C

Explanation:
Edge computing enables processing and analysis close to where data is generated. This supports real-time monitoring by reducing latency, limiting unnecessary data movement, and allowing faster local detection or response near the data source.


NEW QUESTION # 157
An architect is consulting with an organization that requires data to be sent to various destination data stores based on a combination of criteria. This includes, but is not limited to, the presence of personally identifiable information (PII), specific key/value pairs in each event, and the required retention duration for specific data sources. Which of the following types of technology would be most appropriate to address these requirements?

Answer: D

Explanation:
A data router is most appropriate because it can inspect event content and route data to different destinations based on defined conditions, such as PII presence, key/value fields, source type, compliance needs, and retention requirements. This supports selective delivery without forcing all data into a single storage architecture.


NEW QUESTION # 158
A SIEM has a critical role in continually monitoring the effectiveness of security controls.
What is the primary security function of a SIEM?

Answer: A

Explanation:
A Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) platform primarily aggregates, normalizes, searches, and correlates security telemetry collected from different technologies across an organization ' s infrastructure.
These data sources may include identity providers, operating systems, cloud platforms, firewalls, endpoint security solutions, application servers, and network monitoring technologies.
By centralizing this information, a SIEM enables security operations teams to identify patterns that might not be apparent when individual data sources are examined independently.
For example, multiple failed authentication attempts followed by privileged account activity and an unusual outbound connection may indicate potential account compromise.
Splunk Enterprise Security provides detection engineering, correlation searches, threat investigation, and risk- based analysis capabilities that support these use cases.
Its Common Information Model helps normalize data from heterogeneous platforms so that searches and detections can operate consistently across different vendors.
Option A describes Static Application Security Testing (SAST). Option B refers to Configuration Management Database (CMDB) functionality.
Option C is more closely associated with Breach and Attack Simulation (BAS), adversary emulation, and security-control validation.
Although a SIEM can consume outputs from these technologies, its primary function remains the analysis and correlation of security events to identify suspicious behavior and support incident investigation.
Official reference / study topic: Splunk Common Information Model and Splunk Enterprise Security Detection and Investigation.


NEW QUESTION # 159
Hannah is building a data lifecycle management strategy for her organization. She is evaluating data retention requirements such as how and when to delete or destroy data as part of that strategy. What factors must Hannah consider as part of defining data destruction requirements?
(Choose all that apply.)

Answer: B,D

Explanation:
Data destruction requirements must account for both deletion obligations and retention obligations. Privacy and compliance rules may require data to be deleted when a valid customer request is received, while legal or regulatory requirements may require certain records to be retained for a defined minimum period before destruction is allowed.


NEW QUESTION # 160
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