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EC-COUNCIL 212-89 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Section	Weight	Objectives
Topic 1: Handling and Response to Web Application Security Incidents	15%	- Web Application Security Incidents 1. Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) 2. SQL Injection - Web Application Incident Response 1. Log Analysis 2. Web App Forensics
Topic 2: Handling and Response to Cloud Security Incidents	15%	- Cloud Security Incidents 1. Cloud Forensics 2. Cloud Incident Handling - Cloud Incident Response 1. Cloud Security Tools 2. Shared Responsibility Model
Topic 3: Handling and Response to Email Security Incidents	15%	- Email Incident Response 1. Email Investigation 2. Email Forensics - Email Security Incidents 1. Email Spoofing 2. Phishing
Topic 4: Handling and Response to Network Security Incidents	15%	- Network Security Incidents 1. Man-in-the-Middle (MITM) 2. Denial-of-Service (DoS) - Network Incident Response 1. Network Forensics 2. Traffic Analysis
Topic 5: Incident Handling and Response Process	18%	- Incident Handling and Response Process 1. CSIRT 2. Incident Response Policy 3. IH&R Process Steps - Incident Handling and Response Concepts 1. Incident Classification 2. Incident Terminology
Topic 6: First Response	14%	- First Response Concepts 1. First Response Dos and Don'ts 2. First Response Process - Incident Handling and Response Steps 1. Incident Prioritization 2. Incident Recording
Topic 7: Handling and Response to Malware Incidents	18%	- Malware Incident Handling 1. Malware Incident Response 2. Malware Analysis - Malware Handling Tools 1. Sandbox Analysis 2. Anti-Malware Tools

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The EC Council Certified Incident Handler (ECIH v3) (212-89) practice questions (desktop and web-based) are customizable, meaning users can set the questions and time according to their needs to improve their discipline and feel the real-based exam scenario to pass the EC-COUNCIL 212-89 Certification. Customizable mock tests comprehensively and accurately represent the actual 212-89 certification exam scenario.

EC-COUNCIL EC Council Certified Incident Handler (ECIH v3) Sample Questions (Q31-Q36):

NEW QUESTION # 31
A national research agency was recently subjected to a comprehensive cybersecurity compliance audit.
During the audit, reviewers evaluated how the agency's incident response unit manages harmful code samples during investigations. The assessment revealed that team members often interacted with dangerous file payloads directly on enterprise-connected systems used for general operations. Furthermore, no precautionary renaming was applied to prevent accidental triggering, and sensitive materials were placed in areas accessible by non-specialized personnel. The auditors flagged these practices as severely noncompliant with safe sample processing protocols and recommended urgent changes to prevent operational fallout or accidental outbreaks.
Which best practice for secure handling of malicious code was most clearly disregarded in this case?

A. Create vulnerability documentation for each malware sample to support threat profiling and archival.
B. Encrypting all malware sample files using symmetric encryption.
C. Storing malware samples with non-executable file extensions in isolated environments.
D. Tagging malware sample files with platform-specific behavior indicators for improved categorization.

Answer: C

Explanation:
This scenario highlights violations of forensic readiness and safe malware handling, which are explicitly covered in the ECIH First Response and Malware Analysis modules. ECIH stresses that malware samples must never be handled on production or enterprise-connected systems, as this creates a high risk of accidental execution, lateral infection, and organizational impact.
Option A is correct because ECIH mandates that malicious code samples be stored in isolated, non- networked environments and renamed with non-executable extensions (for example, .malware, .bin, or .txt) to prevent accidental execution. This practice ensures operational safety and preserves forensic integrity.
Option B improves confidentiality but does not prevent accidental execution. Option C supports documentation but does not mitigate execution risk. Option D aids classification but does not address safe handling.
The described behavior-handling live malware on enterprise systems without isolation or renaming- directly contradicts ECIH best practices. Proper sample isolation, renaming, and access restriction are mandatory controls to prevent secondary incidents during investigations, making Option A the correct answer.

NEW QUESTION # 32
Zaimasoft, a prominent IT organization, was attacked by perpetrators who directly targeted the hardware and caused irreversible damage to the hardware. In result, replacing or reinstalling the hardware was the only solution.
Identify the type of denial-of-service attack performed on Zaimasoft.

A. DRDoS
B. DoS
C. ddos
D. PDoS

Answer: D

Explanation:
A Permanent Denial-of-Service (PDoS) attack, also known as "phlashing," is a form of attack that targets hardware, causing irreversible damage to the hardware components, thereby making the device unusable without a replacement or significant hardware intervention. In the scenario described with Zaimasoft, the attackers' actions leading to the damage of hardware components align with the characteristics of a PDoS attack. Unlike Distributed Denial-of-Service (DDoS) or Denial-of-Service (DoS) attacks, which generally aim to overwhelm a system's resources temporarily, or DRDoS (Distributed Reflection Denial of Service), which involves amplification techniques using third-party servers, aPDoS attack directly damages the physical hardware, necessitating its replacement or reinstallation. This makes PDoS particularly severe due to its permanent impact on the targeted organization's hardware infrastructure.References:Incident Handler (ECIH v3) educational resources detail various types of denial-of-service attacks, including PDoS, highlighting the distinct nature of each attack and its implications on the affected systems, with PDoS being noted for its physical, irreparable impact on hardware components.

NEW QUESTION # 33
Zoe, a security analyst, deploys a high-interaction honeypot in the DMZ that mimics critical systems and monitors logs for scans, exploit attempts, and lateral movement techniques. What is the main purpose of Zoe's activity?

A. Testing the organization's backup and recovery systems.
B. Blocking DDoS traffic through ACL rules.
C. Deceiving attackers to study their behavior.
D. Preventing malware execution using sandboxing.

Answer: C

Explanation:
A high-interaction honeypot is designed to attract and engage adversaries, providing realistic services so defenders can observe tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) with higher fidelity than a low-interaction decoy. The goal is not to "stop" attacks directly, but to detect and learn:
identify scanning patterns, credential stuffing attempts, exploit chains, payload delivery methods, and post- exploitation behaviors such as enumeration and lateral movement. That intelligence is then used to improve controls--signatures, detections, segmentation, and hardening priorities.
Sandboxing (B) is typically about detonating suspicious files/URLs to observe behavior in a controlled environment; it's not what a DMZ honeypot primarily does. ACL rules and DDoS blocking (C) are traffic filtering measures, not deception telemetry. Backup/recovery testing (D) is resilience planning, unrelated to studying attacker behavior in real-time.
In incident handling terms, honeypots support the "preparation" and "detection" posture-- expanding visibility, generating early warning, and enriching threat intelligence. They can also reduce risk by luring opportunistic attackers away from production assets, but their primary value is behavioral observation and evidence collection.

NEW QUESTION # 34
The most common type(s) of intellectual property is(are):

A. Patents
B. All the above
C. Industrial design rights & Trade secrets
D. Copyrights and Trademarks

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 35
An IoT device deployed in a smart city infrastructure project begins transmitting data at an unusually high rate, signaling a potential security compromise. This device is part of a critical system that monitors traffic flow and controls street lighting, making unauthorized access or manipulation a significant concern for public safety and urban efficiency. What should be the first action taken by the smart city's incident response team to handle this IoT-based security incident effectively?

A. Collaborate with the device manufacturer to investigate the cause of the unusual data transmission.
B. Immediately isolate the compromised IoT device from the network to prevent further unauthorized activity.
C. Update the firmware of all IoT devices within the smart city infrastructure as a precautionary measure.
D. Launch a city-wide campaign to raise awareness about the security risks associated with IoT devices.

Answer: B

Explanation:
In IoT and OT environments, the ECIH curriculum emphasizes that containment is the highest first- response priority, especially when public safety and critical services are involved. The abnormal data transmission strongly suggests compromise, and allowing the device to remain connected risks lateral movement, data exfiltration, and operational disruption.
Option C is correct because immediate isolation of the affected IoT device prevents further unauthorized communication while preserving the system's current state for forensic analysis. Isolation limits the blast radius without unnecessarily disrupting the entire infrastructure.
Option A introduces risk by changing system states during an active incident. Option B is preventive and not an incident response action. Option D is appropriate after containment but not before.
Thus, isolating the compromised device aligns with ECIH endpoint and IoT incident handling principles.

NEW QUESTION # 36
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