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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Dimensions of Care | - Psychosocial Aspects
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| Physician Activities | - Communication
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NEW QUESTION # 146
A 58-year-old woman presents with a 1-year history of functional decline. She reports seeing rodents and little children invading her bedroom. Her partner tells you she has a slow, unsteady gait and tends to fall. On examination, she cannot sustain her attention during cognitive testing. Which one of the following is most likely to be found on brain imaging?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The symptoms - visual hallucinations, attention deficits, gait instability - suggest dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB), which may show bilateral frontal or parietal atrophy on imaging.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, Neurocognitive Disorders:
"DLB presents with fluctuating cognition, visual hallucinations, parkinsonism, and attention deficits. Imaging may show frontal or parietal atrophy but is not always specific." MCCQE1 Objectives - Psychiatry > Neurocognitive Disorders:
"Candidates must recognize the characteristic features of DLB and support diagnosis with imaging when appropriate." Cerebellar atrophy (A) is linked to ataxia but not hallucinations. Subdural hematoma (B) causes abrupt decline. Mediotemporal atrophy (D) is typical of Alzheimer's. Option E is incorrect - imaging can support the diagnosis.
NEW QUESTION # 147
A 19-year-old woman returns to your clinic to discuss her recent laboratory tests. She initially presented with dysuria, dyspareunia, and abnormal uterine bleeding. Her vulvovaginal examination was normal. Her last sexual encounter was 3 weeks prior to the onset of her symptoms. Which one of the following pathogens is most likely to explain this clinical presentation?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Chlamydia trachomatis is the most common cause of cervicitis in young sexually active women and frequently presents with dysuria, dyspareunia, intermenstrual bleeding, and a normal vulvovaginal exam. It may be asymptomatic or have subtle signs and often affects the endocervix.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, "Sexually Transmitted Infections" Section:
"Chlamydia is the most common bacterial STI. Symptoms may include intermenstrual bleeding, postcoital bleeding, dyspareunia, mucopurulent cervical discharge, and dysuria. The vulva and vagina may appear normal." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics and Gynecology > 82-1: Abnormal Uterine Bleeding):
"Candidates should evaluate STI-related cervicitis as a common cause of postcoital and intermenstrual bleeding in young women." Other options:
* A. Actinomyces israelii is associated with IUD use, not relevant here.
* B. Herpes simplex virus usually presents with painful ulcerations, not abnormal bleeding.
* C. Treponema pallidum (syphilis) causes painless ulcers or systemic symptoms in later stages.
* D. HPV causes warts or asymptomatic cervical dysplasia, not acute symptoms.
NEW QUESTION # 148
You are a family physician caring for a healthy 60-year-old woman. Which one of the following preventative interventions is most useful?
Answer: C
Explanation:
For an otherwise healthy 60-year-old woman, screening mammography every 2 years provides the greatest proven population-health benefit among the listed options. MCCQE prevention objectives emphasize selecting screening that meaningfully reduces morbidity and mortality in the target age group. Breast cancer screening with mammography in women aged approximately 50-74 has evidence for earlier detection and reduction in breast-cancer mortality, and biennial screening balances benefit with harms (false positives, overdiagnosis) better than annual screening.
Annual cervical cytology is not recommended for average-risk women; screening intervals are longer (and discontinuation is generally considered after adequate prior screening at older ages). Bone densitometry is typically initiated later (commonly at 65) for average-risk women, with earlier testing reserved for additional risk factors. Routine annual fasting lipids and annual fasting glucose are not the most useful universal interventions in a healthy person; testing frequency is risk-based rather than yearly for all. Therefore, biennial mammography is the best choice for highest preventive value in this patient.
NEW QUESTION # 149
A 35-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 0, aborta 3, presents with her male partner because she has been unable to conceive despite trying for more than 1 year. Her menstrual cycles have been absent for 9 months, and she has occasional mild cyclic pain. She has a medical history of 3 suction curettages. Her BMI is 24.
Investigation results are as follows:
Hysterosalpingogram: Obliterated uterine cavity, no tubal dye spill
Progesterone (midluteal): 48.0 nmol/L (16.4-59.0)
Partner's semen: All parameters normal
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: E
Explanation:
This patient has secondary amenorrhea, infertility, and a history of multiple uterine curettages, which strongly points toward Asherman syndrome (intrauterine adhesions or synechiae). The hysterosalpingogram shows an obliterated uterine cavity and no tubal dye spill-classic for intrauterine synechiae. Her midluteal progesterone level is normal, indicating ovulation.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, "Infertility" section:
"Asherman syndrome results from intrauterine adhesions due to curettage, leading to amenorrhea and infertility. HSG shows an obliterated or irregular uterine cavity." MCCQE1 Objectives (Gynecology > 82-1: Infertility):
"Candidates should evaluate secondary amenorrhea and interpret imaging such as hysterosalpingogram in the diagnosis of intrauterine abnormalities." Other options are ruled out by the presence of normal ovulation (rules out hypothalamic and PCOS) and by imaging (not suggestive of fibroids or perimenopause).
NEW QUESTION # 150
An 87-year-old man presents with a 2-week history of stiffness in both shoulders and both hips. On further questioning, he tells you that he has experienced a 2 kg unintentional weight loss over the last month. His past medical history is otherwise unremarkable and he is on no medications. On examination, he has limited range of motion due to pain in his shoulders and hips. The remainder of his examination, including muscle strength and joint exam, is normal. Which one of the following will you specifically ask about regarding his history?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
This is a classic presentation of polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR), characterized by pain and stiffness in the shoulders and hips in older adults. PMR is closely associated with giant cell arteritis (GCA), which presents with unilateral headache, jaw claudication, visual symptoms, and scalp tenderness. Given the risk of vision loss with GCA, it's critical to screen for these symptoms in all patients with suspected PMR.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Rheumatology, PMR and GCA:
"Patients with PMR should be assessed for symptoms of GCA such as headache, visual changes, and jaw claudication. GCA can result in permanent vision loss if not promptly treated." MCCQE1 Objectives - Internal Medicine > Rheumatology:
"Candidates must identify signs of GCA in patients with PMR and understand the need for prompt diagnosis and treatment."
NEW QUESTION # 151
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