IFC Testantworten - IFC Prüfungsaufgaben

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CISI IFC Prüfungsplan:

ThemaEinzelheiten
Thema 1
  • Ethics, Compliance, and Mutual Fund Regulation: This domain addresses ethical standards and regulatory requirements for advisors, covering professional conduct, compliance obligations, conflicts of interest, disclosure requirements, and rules established by regulators and self-regulatory organizations.
Thema 2
  • The Modern Mutual Fund: This domain examines mutual fund structures, types, and operations, covering equity, fixed income, balanced, and specialty funds, their legal structures, pricing mechanisms, purchase processes, and associated fees.
Thema 3
  • The Know Your Client Communication Process: This domain focuses on gathering and documenting client information to ensure suitable recommendations, including understanding financial situations, investment objectives, risk tolerance, and maintaining ongoing communication with clients.
Thema 4
  • Evaluating and Selecting Mutual Funds: This domain covers the systematic process of choosing appropriate mutual funds based on client needs, including selection criteria, cost considerations, performance history, and ongoing portfolio monitoring and rebalancing.

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IFC Prüfungsaufgaben, IFC Zertifizierungsprüfung

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CISI Investment Funds in Canada (IFC) Exam IFC Prüfungsfragen mit Lösungen (Q48-Q53):

48. Frage
What does a Sharpe ratio of 1 indicate?

Antwort: C

Begründung:


49. Frage
A client has $100,000 in savings, $5,000 in bank accounts, and $10,000 in loans. Calculate his net worth.

Antwort: D

Begründung:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Net worth is calculated as total assets minus total liabilities. The client's assets are $100,000 (savings) +
$5,000 (bank accounts) = $105,000. The liabilities are $10,000 (loans). Thus, net worth = $105,000 - $10,000
= $95,000. The feedback from the document confirms:
"Net worth is calculated as the value of all of the client's assets after subtracting outstanding loan and mortgage balances. In this example, the client has $100,000 + $5,000 = $105,000 in assets, and $10,000 in loans. Therefore, his net worth is $105,000 - $10,000 = $95,000." Reference:Chapter 1 - The Role of the Mutual Fund Sales RepresentativeLearning Domain:An Introduction to the Mutual Funds Marketplace


50. Frage
Preston has been working for Thompson Industries for just over a year and has been part of Thompson ' s deferred profit sharing plan (DPSP) program from his start date. Preston wants to know more about these types of plans.
What would you tell Preston about DPSPs?

Antwort: D


51. Frage
You wish to sell a perpetual preferred share with a par value of $25.00, which pays a quarterly dividend of
$0.25. If other preferred shares of similar quality are currently yielding 3.5%, what price should you expect to receive for your share?

Antwort: C

Begründung:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
The market value of a perpetual preferred share is calculated by dividing the annual dividend by the yield of similar shares. Annual dividend = $0.25 × 4 = $1.00. Price = $1.00 / 0.035 = $28.57. The feedback from the document states:
"The current market value of a perpetual preferred share is calculated by dividing the annual dividend in dollars by the annual yield currently offered on preferred shares of a similar level of risk. In this case, the share would be valued as: ($0.25 × 4) / 0.035 = $28.57." Reference:Chapter 7 - Types of Investment Products and How They Are TradedLearning Domain:
Understanding Investment Products and Portfolios


52. Frage
Which bond has the highest interest rate risk in an increasing rates environment?

Antwort: C

Begründung:
Bond price sensitivity to changes in market interest rates increases as maturity becomes longer and the coupon rate becomes lower . The IFC material specifically explains that price sensitivity rises as term to maturity increases and coupon decreases. Accordingly, the 15-year bonds are more sensitive than the 5-year bonds because investors must wait considerably longer for principal repayment. Between the two 15-year securities, the 4% coupon bond is more sensitive than the 6% coupon bond because a larger proportion of its value is represented by the distant principal payment rather than nearer-term coupon cash flows. When interest rates rise, those distant cash flows are discounted at the new higher rate, producing a larger price decline. Therefore, the 4% coupon 15-year bond has the greatest interest-rate risk, making D correct.


53. Frage
......

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