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CompTIA CS0-004 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Section	Weight	Objectives
Topic 1: Reporting and Communication	16%	- Vulnerability Management Reporting and Communication 1. Metrics and key performance indicators 2. Action plans 3. Inhibitors to remediation 4. Risk scorecards 5. Stakeholder identification and communication 6. Vulnerability scan reports 7. Compliance findings - Security Operations and Incident Response Reporting and Communication 1. Metrics and key performance indicators 2. Shift and incident handover 3. Internal threat intelligence report 4. Operational security awareness 5. Communication plan 6. Executive summary 7. Post-incident reporting 8. Incident declaration and escalation
Topic 2: Incident Response and Management	24%	- Incident Response Process 1. Containment 2. Recovery 3. Post-incident activities 4. Detection 5. Analysis 6. Eradication 7. Preparation - Attack Methodology Frameworks 1. Cyber Kill Chain 2. Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis 3. MITRE ATT&CK - Incident Response Techniques 1. Corrective action development 2. Incident response and communication plans 3. Root cause analysis 4. Evidence gathering and preservation 5. Remediation and verification 6. Log collection, correlation, and enrichment 7. Training and exercises 8. Timeline, severity, impact, and prioritization 9. Playbooks and roles 10. Isolation and escalation 11. Alerts, notifications, and triage 12. Restoration
Topic 3: Security Operations	34%	- System and Network Architecture in Security Operations 1. Data protection concepts 2. Infrastructure and system architecture concepts 3. Operating system concepts 4. Device management concepts 5. Encryption techniques 6. Logging concepts 7. Network architecture concepts 8. Critical infrastructure concepts 9. Identity and access management - Artificial Intelligence in Security Operations 1. AI risks 2. AI use cases 3. AI governance - Efficiency and Process Improvement in Security Operations 1. Automation and orchestration 2. Streamline operations 3. Technology and tool integration 4. Standardize processes 5. Data enrichment - Indicators of Potential Malicious Activity 1. Host-related indicators 2. Application-related indicators 3. Unauthorized configuration 4. Network-related indicators 5. Identity-based indicators 6. Email-related attacks 7. Social engineering attacks 8. Cloud-related indicators - Threat Intelligence and Threat Hunting 1. Threat modeling 2. Collection methods and sources 3. Threat actors 4. Threat mapping 5. Confidence-level impacts 6. Cyber deception 7. Tactics, techniques, and procedures 8. Indicators of compromise - Tools for Determining Malicious Activity 1. Decoding and parsing 2. Programming and scripting languages 3. Sandboxing 4. Endpoint security 5. Log analysis and SIEM 6. Threat intelligence platforms 7. Packet analysis 8. File formats 9. Pattern recognition and suspicious command analysis 10. User and entity behavior analysis 11. Email analysis 12. File analysis 13. Domain and IP reputation
Topic 4: Vulnerability Management	26%	- Vulnerability Assessment Tools 1. Multipurpose tools 2. Vulnerability scanners 3. Network scanning and mapping 4. Cloud infrastructure assessment tools 5. Web application scanners 6. Breach attack simulation tools - Vulnerability Scanning Methods 1. Planning considerations 2. Asset inventory 3. Discovery 4. Scan types 5. Security baseline scanning - Control Types, Risks, and Vulnerability Management 1. Application security 2. Risk management strategies 3. Risk concepts 4. Third-party risk 5. Policies, governance, and service-level objectives 6. Control types 7. Control functions - Vulnerability Prioritization and Mitigation 1. Scoring methods 2. Validation of remediation 3. Mitigation strategies 4. Vulnerability prioritization criteria 5. Context awareness

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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q123-Q128):

NEW QUESTION # 123
As part of a quality assurance test, a developer wants to examine how the code behaves after an application has been fully compiled and is running. Which of the following best describes the type of testing that the developer should perform?

A. Black box
B. Static
C. Dynamic
D. Diagnostic

Answer: C

Explanation:
Dynamic testing evaluates the application during runtime after it has been compiled, allowing the developer to observe actual behavior, execution flow, and interactions while the application is running.

NEW QUESTION # 124
A security architect works with a client on security operations center (SOC) capabilities. The security architect wants to ensure the log correlation and investigation activities are accurate across the infrastructure. Which of the following is the best for the client to implement?

A. Network Time Protocol (NTP)
B. Zero Trust Network Access (ZTNA)
C. Application programming interfaces (APIs)
D. Secure access service edge (SASE)
E. Account federation

Answer: A

Explanation:
NTP synchronizes system clocks across the infrastructure, ensuring log timestamps align for accurate event correlation and incident timeline analysis.

NEW QUESTION # 125
A company's Zero Trust network requires reauthentication with MFA every two hours. Which of the following is an advantage of this architecture?

A. Prevents the recurring use of rainbow tables
B. Increases the accuracy of user and device asset inventories
C. Rotates the encryption key to prevent brute forcing
D. Reduces the time an attacker can use compromised credentials

Answer: D

Explanation:
Requiring MFA reauthentication every two hours limits the duration of a user's authenticated session. If an attacker obtains valid credentials or hijacks an active session, the attacker will have only a limited window of access before reauthentication is required, reducing the potential impact of compromised credentials.

NEW QUESTION # 126
Which of the following describes the importance of an organization understanding SLOs when outsourcing IR to a third party?

A. To understand the hidden costs of an SLA
B. To track the performance of specific KPIs
C. To ensure that an objective risk score can be calculated
D. To quantify the risk appetite in an MOU

Answer: B

Explanation:
Service Level Objectives (SLOs) define specific performance targets for services provided by a third party, such as incident detection, response, or resolution times. Understanding these objectives allows an organization to measure and track the provider's performance through relevant KPIs and determine whether the outsourced incident response service is meeting expectations.

NEW QUESTION # 127
Which of the following should be configured in a WAF to mitigate an RCE attack?

A. Stored procedure in the database
B. Rule to detect and block OS commands
C. Parameterized queries
D. Rate control in deny mode

Answer: B

Explanation:
Remote Code Execution (RCE) attacks often attempt to execute operating system commands through user-supplied input. A WAF can mitigate these attacks by using rules that detect and block malicious command patterns and payloads before they reach the application. This provides protection at the web application layer against command execution attempts.

NEW QUESTION # 128
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