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NEW QUESTION # 55
Refer to the exhibit.
A partial cloud topology is shown.
You deployed a FortiGate Cloud-Native Firewall (CNF) in AWS.
During the deployment, which components must be FortiGate CNF create to handle traffic from the EC2 instance?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The FortiGate CNF must create the gateway load balancer endpoint (GWLBe) in the customer VPC to handle traffic redirection from EC2 instances to the FortiGate CNF via the gateway load balancer (GWLB).
NEW QUESTION # 56
Refer to the exhibits.
Based on the current HA status, an administrator updates the override and priority parameters on HQ-NGFW-1 and HQ-NGFW-2 as shown in the exhibits.
What would be the expected outcome in the HA cluster?
Answer: D
Explanation:
From the current HA status, HQ-NGFW-1 is the primary and HQ-NGFW-2 is the secondary.
The administrator then changes these HA parameters:
HQ-NGFW-1: set override disable, set priority 90
HQ-NGFW-2: set override enable, set priority 110
In FGCP (A-P mode), the override (preemption) feature controls whether a higher-priority unit is allowed to take over the primary role.
When override is enabled, the cluster will prefer (and can re-elect) the unit with the highest device priority to become primary (preempting a lower-priority primary when conditions trigger re-election behavior as defined by FGCP).
Here, HQ-NGFW-2 has:
override enabled
higher priority (110) than HQ-NGFW-1 (90)
Therefore, the expected result is that HQ-NGFW-2 becomes the primary.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B is incorrect because it claims HQ-NGFW-2 has lower priority (it is higher: 110 > 90).
C is incorrect because a mismatch in the override setting is not what causes the "configuration out of sync" condition shown in get system ha status (that is about synchronized configuration databases, not a requirement that override values must match to remain in-sync).
D is incorrect because HA settings like override/priority are not synchronized in the way regular configuration objects are; they are device-level HA parameters.
NEW QUESTION # 57
Refer to the exhibit.
What can you conclude from the log shown in the exhibit?
Answer: C
Explanation:
"You can configure the fail-open setting under config ips global to control how the IPS engine behaves when the IPS socket buffer is full ."
"If the IPS engine does not have enough memory to build more sessions , the fail-open setting determines whether the FortiGate should drop the sessions or bypass the sessions without inspection ."
"It is important to understand that the IPS fail-open setting is not just for conserve mode-it kicks in whenever IPS fails. Most failures are due to a high CPU issue or a high memory (conserve mode) issue." Technical Deep Dive:
The correct answer is A .
The log text says:
* logdesc= " IPS session scan paused "
* action= " drop "
* msg= " IPS session scan, enter fail open mode "
That combination indicates an IPS failure condition , specifically the condition described in the guide where the IPS socket buffer is full and the IPS engine lacks enough memory/resources to build additional sessions.
In that state, FortiGate applies the configured IPS fail-open behavior . Since the log shows action= " drop " , the device is not bypassing those new sessions; it is dropping them.
Why the other choices are wrong:
* B is wrong because the guide ties fail-open to socket buffer/resource exhaustion , not packet decode failure.
* C is wrong because this is not evidence of a manual diagnostic pause.
* D is wrong because the study guide does not associate this log with dirty-flag packet reevaluation.
Operationally, this usually points to high memory , high CPU , or conserve-mode pressure affecting the IPS engine. Useful checks are:
get system performance status
diagnose hardware sysinfo conserve
diagnose sys top
Those help confirm whether the IPS issue is being driven by memory pressure or CPU exhaustion.
NEW QUESTION # 58
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator is troubleshooting an IPsec tunnel between two FortiGate devices. The administrator has determined that phase 1 failed to come up. The administrator has also re-entered the pre-shared key on both FortiGate devices to make sure they match.
Based on the phase 1 configuration and the diagram shown in the exhibit, which two configuration changes can the administrator make to bring phase 1 up? (Choose two.)
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Exact Extract:
"In IKEv1, there are two possible modes in which the IKE SA negotiation can take place: main, and aggressive mode. Settings on both ends must agree; otherwise, phase 1 negotiation fails and both IPsec peers are not able to establish a secure channel."
"When both peers know each other ' s IP address or FQDN, you may want to use main mode to take advantage of its more secure negotiation. In this case, FortiGate can identify the remote peer by its IP address and, as a result, associate it with the correct IPsec tunnel."
"FortiGate supports three DPD modes... The default DPD mode is On Demand ."
" Diffie-Hellman (DH) ... is used during IKE SA negotiation. The use of DH in phase 1 is mandatory and can't be disabled . You must select at least one DH group." Technical Deep Dive:
The correct answers are B and C .
B is correct because phase 1 fails when IKE mode settings do not match between peers. The study guide explicitly says phase 1 settings on both ends must agree. Since this is a static site-to-site tunnel and both peers know each other's IP addresses, Main (ID protection) is the appropriate mode.
C is correct based on the exhibit: BR1-FGT appears bound to the wrong physical interface. The screenshot shows Interface = port1 , while the diagram/answer choice indicates the tunnel should be using port2 . If the phase 1 is bound to the wrong WAN interface, FortiGate sends IKE packets out the wrong path and phase 1 will not come up.
Why the others are not the fix:
* A is not correct because DH is mandatory in phase 1. The issue is not "disable DH group 2" by itself; the real requirement is that the peers negotiate a compatible proposal. The option as written is not the proper corrective action from the guide.
* D is not correct because DPD does not determine whether phase 1 can initially establish. It is a tunnel health/failure-detection feature after negotiation behavior, and On Demand is already the default mode.
NEW QUESTION # 59
You are onboarding an agentless, secure web gateway (SWG) endpoint for secure internet access (SIA). What will happen to the user ' s nonweb traffic? (Choose one answer)
Answer: C
Explanation:
"In this use case, FortiSASE acts as an SWG and distributes a proxy auto-configuration (PAC) file to end users, enabling the FortiSASE SWG service as an explicit web proxy. SWG deployment secures only web traffic protocols, such as HTTP and HTTPS."
"All other nonweb traffic bypasses FortiSASE and is forwarded directly to the internet." Technical Deep Dive:
The correct answer is A .
In agentless SWG-based SIA , FortiSASE is operating as an explicit web proxy using a PAC file . That model captures only web protocols , specifically HTTP and HTTPS . It does not create a full tunnel for the endpoint like agent-based FortiClient deployment does.
So the design implication is simple: nonweb traffic does not traverse FortiSASE in this onboarding model.
It goes directly to the internet from the endpoint.
Why the other options are wrong:
* B is wrong because this is not split-tunnel VPN behavior.
* C is wrong because FWaaS does not automatically capture nonweb traffic in the agentless SWG model.
* D is wrong because SWG does not redirect nonweb traffic to FortiExtender.
This is an important deployment distinction:
* Agent-based SIA can steer broader endpoint traffic through FortiSASE.
* Agentless SWG SIA secures only browser-based web traffic.
NEW QUESTION # 60
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