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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|
| Advanced Incident Response and Management | 10% | - Incident response architecture
- 1. Response workflows
- 2. Incident management optimization
- 3. Investigation processes
|
| Governance, Risk and Compliance | 10% | - Security governance
- 1. Policy alignment
- 2. Compliance requirements
- 3. Risk management frameworks
|
| Advanced Threat Intelligence and Analysis | 5% | - Threat intelligence architecture
- 1. Threat-informed defense
- 2. Advanced threat analysis
- 3. Threat intelligence integration
|
| Measuring and Improving Security Program Effectiveness | 15% | - Security metrics and performance
- 1. Risk measurement
- 2. Continuous improvement processes
- 3. Program maturity assessment
|
| Scaling Cybersecurity Defenses and DevSecOps | 15% | - Security architecture at scale
- 1. Enterprise security operations design
- 2. Scalable defense strategies
- 3. DevSecOps integration
|
| Advanced Automation and Orchestration | 10% | - SOAR architecture
- 1. Playbook design
- 2. Workflow automation
- 3. Security orchestration
|
| Security Capability Selection, Placement and Configuration | 15% | - Security control architecture
- 1. Control placement strategies
- 2. Capability integration
- 3. Technology selection
|
| Security Data Management | 20% | - Data architecture design
- 1. Data quality and governance
- 2. Security data onboarding and normalization
- 3. Data lifecycle management
|
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Splunk Certified Cybersecurity Defense Architect Sample Questions (Q159-Q164):
NEW QUESTION # 159
A security architect is tasked with implementing new security controls in a cloud environment. To minimize operational risk, the architect decides to use a phase-based rollout strategy.
The approach involves the following steps:
- Deploy the controls in "monitoring-only" mode on a canary system to observe for any unexpected behavior.
- Expand the monitoring deployment to a small subset of production systems.
- After validating the results and ensuring minimal impact, gradually enable the controls in blocking/enforcement mode, first on the canary, then the subset, and finally on all systems.
Which of the following best describes the main advantage of this phased, monitoring-first deployment strategy?
- A. It will identify issues early and allow time to resolve in a controlled manner.
- B. It reduces the need for ongoing monitoring after deployment.
- C. It eliminates the need to communicate changes to system owners and users.
- D. It immediately enables preventative security policies across portions of the environment.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A phased, monitoring-first rollout reduces operational risk by exposing unexpected behavior, false positives, performance issues, or business impact before enforcement is broadly enabled.
Starting with a canary and gradually expanding deployment gives the team time to tune controls and resolve issues in a controlled manner.
NEW QUESTION # 160
An architect is planning for a net new SIEM deployment. Which of the following data sources will provide the most immediate security value?
- A. CMDB logs
- B. Physical access control logs
- C. Active Directory logs
- D. Security tool alerts
Answer: D
Explanation:
Security tool alerts provide the most immediate value because they are already security-focused, enriched by existing controls, and directly tied to suspicious or malicious activity. In a new SIEM deployment, this gives analysts actionable detections quickly while broader raw telemetry sources are onboarded and tuned.
NEW QUESTION # 161
A national retail chain is planning to implement a SIEM to improve its PCI compliance in response to an audit finding. What is a benefit that the SIEM should provide to the organization?
- A. Security controls are routinely tested to ensure they are implemented correctly and continue to function properly.
- B. Cardholder data is encrypted both in transit and at rest using the latest TLS and AES standards to prevent eavesdropping.
- C. Card transactions are recorded in a central location for financial reporting.
- D. Access to cardholder networks and system resources is monitored continuously, and alerts are produced in the case of access anomalies.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A SIEM supports PCI compliance by continuously monitoring access to cardholder data environments, collecting security-relevant logs, correlating activity, and generating alerts for anomalous or unauthorized access. This helps the organization detect and investigate potential security events affecting cardholder networks and systems.
NEW QUESTION # 162
The internet facing WAF for a new customer facing application has been identified as a potential telemetry collection point. Which of the following best describes this data prior to any tuning or curation efforts?
- A. High Value/High Noise
- B. Low Value/Low Noise
- C. High Value/Low Noise
- D. Low Value/High Noise
Answer: A
Explanation:
Internet-facing WAF telemetry is high value because it provides visibility into attacks, suspicious requests, exploit attempts, and traffic patterns targeting a customer-facing application. Before tuning or curation, it is also typically high noise because public-facing applications receive large volumes of benign traffic, automated scanning, false positives, and repetitive web requests.
NEW QUESTION # 163
How can an organization best improve its Mean Time to Respond (MTTR) metrics?
- A. Automatically page incident responders when low severity alerts occur.
- B. Implement SOAR playbooks to automatically isolate infected endpoints.
- C. Use a message bus to stream data to a data lake for trend analysis.
- D. Automatically empty spam folders from end users' mailboxes every 30 days.
Answer: B
Explanation:
SOAR playbooks improve Mean Time to Respond by automating repeatable containment actions, such as isolating infected endpoints. This reduces manual response delays and helps responders act faster when confirmed threats require immediate containment.
NEW QUESTION # 164
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