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NCLEX-RN exam is a critical test for any aspiring registered nurse in the United States. It is administered by the National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN) and is designed to test the competency and readiness of individuals who wish to practice as registered nurses. The test is computerized and adaptive, meaning that the difficulty of the questions increases or decreases based on the candidate's responses.
Preparing for the NCLEX-RN Exam requires a significant amount of studying and practice. Many nursing schools offer review courses and study materials to help students prepare for the exam. Additionally, there are numerous commercial study resources and test prep programs available to help test-takers succeed on the exam. While passing the NCLEX-RN can be challenging, it is a critical step toward a rewarding career in nursing.
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For most users, access to the relevant qualifying examinations may be the first, so many of the course content related to qualifying examinations are complex and arcane. According to these ignorant beginners, the NCLEX-RN exam questions set up a series of basic course, by easy to read, with corresponding examples to explain at the same time, the NCLEX-RN study question let the user to be able to find in real life and corresponds to the actual use of NCLEX-RN learned knowledge. And it will only takes 20 to 30 hours for them to pass the NCLEX-RN exam.
Passing the NCLEX-RN exam is a critical step in becoming a licensed registered nurse. It is a requirement for licensure in all 50 U.S. states, the District of Columbia, and the U.S. territories of Guam, American Samoa, and the Northern Mariana Islands. Additionally, many Canadian provinces also require the NCLEX-RN for licensure. NCLEX-RN exam is administered year-round, and candidates must register and pay a fee in order to take the exam.
NEW QUESTION # 397
A client takes warfarin (Coumadin) 15 mg po daily. To evaluate the medication's effectiveness, the nurse should monitor the:
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) PT evaluates adequacy of extrinsic clotting pathway. Adequacy of warfarin therapy is monitored by PT.
(B) PTT evaluates adequacy of intrinsic clotting pathway. Adequacy of heparin therapy is monitored by PTT. (C) There is no such laboratory test. (D) Fibrin split products indicate fibrinolysis. This is a screening test for disseminated intravascular coagulation. Heparin therapy may increase fibrin split products.
NEW QUESTION # 398
A client is 2 hours post ventriculoperitoneal shunt placement. How should the nurse position the client?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Elevation of head on nonoperative side would be the position for the late postoperative period. (B) Positioning on operative side puts pressure on the suture lines and on the shunt valve. Elevation of head in immediate postoperative period may cause rapid reduction of cerebrospinal fluid. (C) Placement on operative side puts pressure on the suture lines and shunt valve. (D) Flat position on nonoperative side in the immediate postoperative period prevents pressure on shunt valve and rapid reduction in cerebrospinal fluid.
NEW QUESTION # 399
Chorioamnionitis is a maternal infection that is usually associated with:
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set D
Explanation
Explanation:
(A) Chorioamnionitis is an inflammation of the chorion and amnion that is generally associated with premature or prolonged rupture of membranes. (B) Postterm deliveries have not been shown to increase the risk of chorioamnionitis unless there has been prolonged rupture of membranes. (C) Pyelonephritis is a kidney infection that develops in 20%-40% of untreated maternal UTIs. (D) Maternal dehydration, though of great concern, is not related to chorioamnionitis.
NEW QUESTION # 400
A client's renal calculi are identified as consisting of calcium phosphate. Which of the following diets would be appropriate?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) The stones consist of calcium and phosphorus; therefore, these minerals should be avoided. A high- calcium diet is contraindicated. (B) A high-phosphorus diet is contraindicated. (C) A 2-g sodium diet is a cardiac diet. (D) A low-calcium and phosphorus diet will reduce further calculi formation.
NEW QUESTION # 401
A client was admitted with rib fractures and a pneumothorax, which were sustained as a result of a motor vehicle accident. A chest tube was placed on the left side to reinflate his lung, and he was transferred to a client unit. Twenty-four hours after admission he continues to have bloody sputum, develops increasing hypoxemia, and his chest x-ray shows patchy infiltrates. The nurse analyzes these symptoms as being consistent with:
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set C
Explanation:
(A) Pneumonia may be reflected by patchy infiltrates. In addition, fever, an increasing white blood cell count, and copious sputum production would be present. (B) Blunt chest traumacauses a bruising process in which interstitial and alveolar edema and hemorrhage occur. This is manifest by gradual deterioration over 24 hours of arterial blood gases and the continued production of bloody sputum. Patchy infiltrates are evident on chest xray 24 hours postinjury. (C) Pulmonary edema usually results from left heart failure. It is manifest by pink, frothy sputum; increasing dyspnea; tachycardia; and crackles on auscultation. (D) Tension pneumothorax is a potential complication for someone with rib fractures and a chest tube. It is manifest by diminished breath sounds on the affected side, rapidly deteriorating arterial blood gases in the presence of an open airway, and shock that is unexplained by other injuries.
NEW QUESTION # 402
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