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| Certification Vendor: | ACDIS |
|---|---|
| Exam Name: | Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient (CCDS-O) Exam |
| Exam Number: | CCDS-O |
| Passing Score: | 85 out of 120 scored questions |
| Exam Duration: | 150 minutes |
| Exam Price: | $280 (ACDIS members), $380 (non-members), +$100 international fee |
| Available Languages: | English |
| Real Exam Qty: | 140 (120 scored, 20 unscored) |
| Exam Format: | Multiple-choice questions, Remotely proctored or test center delivery, Computer-based |
| Related Certifications: | Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist (CCDS) |
| Certificate Validity Period: | 2 years |
| Recommended Training: | CCDS-O Official Study Guide CCDS-O Exam Candidate Handbook |
| Exam Registration: | Prometric Scheduling ACDIS Certification Application |
| Sample Questions: | ACDIS CCDS-O Sample Questions |
| Exam Way: | Computer-based testing at Prometric centers or remote proctoring via ProProctor |
| Pre Condition: | RN, MD, DO, or HIM/coding certification (RHIA, RHIT, CCS, CPC, CRC, COC) + 2 years outpatient CDI experience; OR 1 year outpatient + 1 year inpatient CDI experience; minimum 2,000 hours per year |
| Official Syllabus URL: | https://acdis.org/certification/ccds-o |
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NEW QUESTION # 57
Which of the following is a provider benefit of a prospective query?
Answer: D
Explanation:
A prospective query is initiated early enough (before or during the visit workflow) so the provider can evaluate, assess, and document the condition in real time while the patient is present. This is a major provider benefit because it supports better clinical accuracy and completeness: the clinician can ask targeted questions, perform relevant exam elements, review results, and determine whether the condition is present, active, being monitored, or ruled out-then document the final clinical impression and plan. From an ACDIS outpatient CDI perspective, prospective querying improves efficiency and reduces retrospective "chart-chasing," late addenda, and documentation gaps that occur when clarification is requested after the encounter is closed. Importantly, prospective queries must remain non-leading and cannot direct the provider to a particular diagnosis (eliminating option A). They also cannot "guarantee" risk-adjusted capture because the diagnosis must be clinically supported and addressed (eliminating option B). Defining the purpose of the encounter is driven by the clinical reason for visit, not by CDI (eliminating option D).
NEW QUESTION # 58
Which of the following lab values, when trended for greater than 3 months, indicates an objective measure of chronic kidney damage?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is defined by evidence of kidney damage or reduced kidney function that persists for at least three months. An estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR/GFR) below 60 mL/min sustained over that timeframe is an objective indicator of chronically decreased renal function and supports CKD identification and staging in the outpatient record. This is why outpatient CDI programs frequently use trended eGFR as a clinical indicator to prompt documentation of CKD stage (e.g., stage 3a/3b, stage 4, etc.) when appropriate. BNP >1000 is more aligned with heart failure severity/volume status rather than kidney damage. BUN <12 is within/near normal and does not indicate renal impairment (elevated BUN may be seen with renal dysfunction but is less specific and affected by hydration, diet, GI bleed). Glucose >100 is a screening indicator for impaired fasting glucose/prediabetes but does not, by itself, establish chronic kidney damage. Therefore, sustained GFR <60 is the best objective lab-based measure of chronic kidney damage over time.
NEW QUESTION # 59
Which entity is tasked by CMS to process both Part A and Part B beneficiary claims?
Answer: D
Explanation:
CMS assigns Medicare Administrative Contractors (MACs) to administer Medicare fee-for-service operations at the jurisdictional level, including processing and paying both Part A and Part B claims. In outpatient CDI terms, MACs are central because they apply Medicare coverage rules, edit logic, and payment policies that determine whether documentation supports medical necessity and correct coding for submitted claims. This includes adjudicating hospital outpatient (Part B) services and facility-based Part A services, handling provider enrollment functions, issuing Local Coverage Determinations (as applicable through their medical review processes), and responding to claim inquiries and appeals routing. By contrast, Recovery Audit Contractors (RACs) focus on identifying and recovering improper payments (post-payment auditing). Risk Adjustment Data Validation (RADV) contractors validate diagnosis data submitted for risk-adjusted programs (primarily Medicare Advantage), not routine FFS claim processing. Zone Program Integrity Contractors (ZPICs) (and their successors in some contexts) focus on program integrity and fraud/waste/abuse investigations rather than standard claim adjudication. Therefore, the entity responsible for processing Part A and Part B beneficiary claims is the MAC.
NEW QUESTION # 60
When reviewing physician metrics, a CDI specialist notes upward trends in the use of unspecified diagnoses. Which of the following diagnoses provides the BEST opportunity to positively influence the providers' RAF score in the CMS-HCC model?
Answer: B
Explanation:
In CMS-HCC risk adjustment, RAF impact comes from reporting qualifying chronic diseases (HCCs), not from nonspecific symptom-only documentation. "Angina pectoris, unspecified" is frequently a symptom-level statement and, by itself, often does not carry the same risk-adjustment weight as documenting and coding the underlying ischemic heart disease responsible for the angina (for example, coronary artery disease/atherosclerotic heart disease with angina). Ambulatory CDI practice emphasizes that when providers document only "angina," coders may be limited to a symptom code, which can under-represent the patient's true disease burden in the HCC model. This makes angina an excellent target for provider education: clarify whether the angina is due to CAD, whether CAD is present and being managed, and whether there are related manifestations (e.g., unstable angina, prior MI history, status post CABG/stent) that support more complete, clinically accurate reporting. By improving documentation linkage from symptom (angina) to the definitive chronic condition (CAD with angina), the provider can more reliably capture an HCC-relevant diagnosis and positively influence RAF accuracy.
NEW QUESTION # 61
Which of the following conditions or findings supports a diagnosis of diabetes?
Answer: B
Explanation:
In outpatient clinical documentation and chart review, diabetes can be supported by recognized diagnostic thresholds. An HbA1c value reflects average blood glucose over approximately the prior 2-3 months and is commonly used to diagnose and monitor diabetes. An HbA1c ≥ 6.5% (when confirmed per clinical practice standards and interpreted in the appropriate clinical context) supports a diagnosis of diabetes; therefore an HbA1c of 7.0% clearly meets the threshold and supports diabetes. By comparison, a 2-hour OGTT value of 90 mg/dL is normal and does not support diabetes (diabetes is typically supported when the 2-hour value is ≥ 200 mg/dL). Hypoglycemia is low blood glucose and is not diagnostic of diabetes; it may occur in diabetics due to treatment but can also occur in non-diabetics for many reasons. A fasting glucose of 100 mg/dL is at most borderline/prediabetes range and does not meet diagnostic criteria for diabetes (diabetes is supported at ≥ 126 mg/dL).
NEW QUESTION # 62
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