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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Security | 19% | - Identity and access management - Network security and compliance - Data security and encryption - Vulnerability management and zero trust |
| DevOps Fundamentals | 10% | - CI/CD pipelines - Infrastructure as code - Collaboration and version control |
| Deployment | 19% | - Resource provisioning and deployment - Containerization and serverless deployment - Migration strategies - Automation and orchestration |
| Cloud Architecture | 23% | - Workload requirements and solution design - Cloud service and deployment models - Network and storage architecture - Architecture concepts and design principles |
| Troubleshooting | 12% | - Storage and performance problems - Network and connectivity issues - Automation and deployment failures - Security and access errors |
| Operations | 17% | - Resource management and cost control - Monitoring and observability - Backup, recovery and business continuity - Performance optimization and scaling |
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NEW QUESTION # 76
Which of the following should be added to a SAN to decrease the amount of time it takes a server to back up in a private cloud?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Fibre Channel provides high-speed, low-latency data transfer within a SAN, which reduces backup time by increasing throughput between the server and storage.
NEW QUESTION # 77
A cloud administrator shortens the amount of time a backup runs. An executive in the company requires a guarantee that the backups can be restored with no data loss. Which of the following backup features should the administrator lest for?
Answer: C
Explanation:
To guarantee that backups can be restored with no data loss, the administrator should test for data integrity.
This ensures that the data has not been altered during the backup process and that it can be restored to its original state.
Backup integrity is a critical aspect of data management and protection, which falls under the best practices for backups and restoration in the CompTIA Cloud+ curriculum.
NEW QUESTION # 78
A developer is sending requests to a SaaS application. The developer becomes unable to send anymore requests after sending a number of them, but other developers can still send requests.
Which of the following is most likely causing the issue?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Rate limiting restricts the number of requests a single user or client can send in a given time window. Since only this developer is affected while others can still send requests, the issue is most likely due to per-user rate limiting rather than a global outage or quota.
NEW QUESTION # 79
Once a change has been made to templates, which of the following commands should a cloud architect use next to deploy an laaS platform?
Answer: D
Explanation:
After making changes to templates, a cloud architect should use the git push command to deploy an IaaS platform. This command is used to upload the local repository content to a remote repository, making the new or changed templates available for the next deployment.
Version control practices and commands, such as using git for IaaS template management, are covered under the best practices for cloud deployments in the CompTIA Cloud+ certification.
NEW QUESTION # 80
A company uses containers stored in Docker Hub to deploy workloads (or its laaS infrastructure.
The development team releases changes to the containers several times per hour. Which of the following should a cloud engineer do to prevent the proprietary code from being exposed to third parties?
Answer: C
Explanation:
To prevent proprietary code from being exposed to third parties, a cloud engineer should use private repositories for the containers. Private repositories ensure that access to container images is restricted and controlled, unlike public repositories where images are accessible to anyone.
NEW QUESTION # 81
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