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| Certification Vendor: | ASHRM (American Society for Healthcare Risk Management) |
|---|---|
| Exam Name: | Certified Professional in Health Care Risk Management Exam |
| Exam Number: | CPHRM |
| Real Exam Qty: | 110 (100 scored, 10 unscored pre-test items) |
| Exam Price: | $275 (ASHRM members), $425 (non-members) |
| Exam Duration: | 120 minutes |
| Passing Score: | Criterion-referenced, no fixed numerical score published |
| Certificate Validity Period: | 3 years |
| Exam Format: | Multiple-choice questions, Computer-based |
| Available Languages: | English |
| Recommended Training: | CPHRM Exam Prep Course |
| Exam Registration: | PSI Testing Registration ASHRM Official CPHRM Page |
| Sample Questions: | ASHRM CPHRM Sample Questions |
| Exam Way: | Onsite at PSI testing centers or live remote proctored online |
| Pre Condition: | One of: Bachelor's degree + 5 years healthcare experience; Associate degree + 7 years; High school diploma + 9 years; plus 3,000 hours or 50% of job duties in healthcare risk management within last 3 years |
| Official Syllabus URL: | https://www.ashrm.org/education/cphrm |
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NEW QUESTION # 42
Standardization of abbreviations, acronyms, and symbols used throughout the organization will likely result in improvement related to which of the following Joint Commission National Patient Safety Goals?
Answer: B
Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, standardization of abbreviations, acronyms, and symbols directly supports the Joint Commission National Patient Safety Goal focused on improving the effectiveness of communication among caregivers. Inconsistent or ambiguous abbreviations can lead to misinterpretation of orders, delays in treatment, medication errors, and breakdowns in interdisciplinary communication.
The Joint Commission has historically emphasized the elimination of dangerous or error-prone abbreviations as part of its efforts to enhance clarity in documentation and verbal communication. By standardizing terminology and limiting the use of unapproved abbreviations, healthcare organizations reduce variability and promote accurate transfer of information during handoffs, documentation, and order entry.
While standardized terminology may indirectly support medication safety and reconciliation processes, its primary impact is on communication effectiveness. Accurate communication among caregivers is foundational to patient safety and reduces preventable adverse events resulting from misunderstanding or incomplete information.
Clinical and patient safety objectives emphasize clear, consistent documentation and communication practices. Therefore, standardizing abbreviations and symbols most directly improves the effectiveness of communication among caregivers.
NEW QUESTION # 43
A subpoena duces tecum requires the recipient to
* produce specified documents.
* appear at a deposition or trial.
* provide a list of all parties involved.
* disclose the names of expert witnesses.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Within Health Care Risk Management practice as outlined by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, understanding legal process documents is essential to effective claims management and litigation response. A subpoena duces tecum is a court-issued legal instrument requiring an individual or organization to produce specified documents, records, or tangible evidence relevant to a legal proceeding.
In many jurisdictions, a subpoena duces tecum may also require the recipient to appear at a deposition, hearing, or trial while producing the requested documents. The key distinguishing feature is the command to bring documents or evidence. Compliance is mandatory unless successfully challenged or quashed by the court.
Providing a list of all parties involved or disclosing expert witness identities are generally handled through formal discovery processes such as interrogatories, requests for production, or court-ordered disclosures, not specifically by a subpoena duces tecum.
Claims and litigation objectives emphasize prompt review of subpoenas, coordination with legal counsel, protection of privileged information, and timely compliance to avoid sanctions. Therefore, a subpoena duces tecum requires production of specified documents and may also compel appearance, making options 1 and 2 correct.
NEW QUESTION # 44
Which of the following should prompt a risk manager to give notice to a malpractice carrier?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Under Health Care Risk Management principles established by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, timely notice to a malpractice carrier is a critical obligation, particularly under claims-made policies. A demand letter from a patient constitutes a clear assertion of liability and a request for compensation, which typically meets the definition of a claim under most malpractice insurance policies. Failure to notify the carrier promptly may jeopardize coverage.
A written medical record request from an attorney may signal potential litigation, but it does not necessarily constitute a claim unless accompanied by an allegation of wrongdoing or a demand for damages. An internal incident report is a risk management tool used for quality and safety improvement and does not itself trigger insurance notification requirements. Similarly, disclosure to a patient regarding an adverse event aligns with transparency practices but does not automatically represent a formal claim.
Risk management objectives emphasize understanding policy language, particularly definitions of claim and reporting requirements. Because a demand letter explicitly alleges harm and seeks compensation, it most clearly triggers the duty to notify the malpractice carrier to preserve coverage and initiate appropriate claims handling procedures.
NEW QUESTION # 45
An unstable patient in the emergency department needs transfer to another hospital. Which of the following statements is true regarding the refusal of an on-call physician to treat this patient?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Under Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, obligations under the Emergency Medical Treatment and Labor Act EMTALA govern on-call physician responsibilities. When a hospital maintains an on-call roster to provide specialty services for emergency department patients, physicians listed on call are required to respond and participate in the evaluation and stabilization of patients with emergency medical conditions.
An on-call physician may only be relieved of duty if legitimately unavailable due to circumstances beyond their control, such as actively caring for another patient or being otherwise unable to respond in accordance with hospital policy. Refusal to treat for convenience or non-clinical reasons may constitute an EMTALA violation and expose both the hospital and physician to regulatory penalties.
A blanket right to refuse care is inconsistent with EMTALA requirements. While financial discrimination is prohibited, refusal for other non-justifiable reasons may still violate federal law. Conversely, stating that a physician is never relieved of duty is inaccurate, as legitimate unavailability may excuse performance under specific circumstances.
Legal and regulatory objectives emphasize compliance with EMTALA, proper on-call coverage policies, and documentation of availability. Therefore, the correct statement is that relief occurs only when the physician is unavailable due to circumstances outside their control.
NEW QUESTION # 46
If an at-risk patient is left unattended and has an adverse response to medication, this is best classified as:
Answer: C
Explanation:
Leaving an at-risk patient unattended during/after medication administration is typically anactive failure occurring at thesharp end-the point of direct care delivery. Active errors are the observable actions
/omissions by frontline personnel that can immediately contribute to harm (e.g., failure to monitor sedation, failure to reassess after opioids). Risk management objectives, however, require looking beyond the individual act: Was staffing insufficient? Was monitoring policy unclear? Were alarms ineffective? Was there inadequate training or workload overload? Those "blunt end" conditions create latent risk that increases the likelihood of sharp-end failures. Proper classification helps organizations respond with systems fixes (monitoring standards, escalation triggers, staffing acuity tools, continuous pulse oximetry/capnography policies where appropriate) rather than blaming individuals alone.
NEW QUESTION # 47
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