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ACDIS CCDS-O Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • and billing: Covers Official Coding Guidelines, OPPS reimbursement (APCs), and professional billing concepts including CPT E
  • M codes and Medicare Physician Fee Schedule documentation.
Topic 2
  • Coding and Reporting, the Outpatient Prospective Payment System (OPPS), and provider coding
Topic 3
  • Healthcare regulations, reimbursement, and documentation requirements related to the Official Guidelines for
Topic 4
  • Risk Adjustment Models and Impact of Documentation and Coding: Covers CMS-HCC model fundamentals, RAF scoring, Medicare Advantage payments, hierarchies, disease interactions, and compliant HCC reporting requirements.
Topic 5
  • Quality, Regulatory, and Health Initiatives: Covers population health, MSSP, ACO models, MACRA
  • MIPS, compliant query development, RADV audits, OIG compliance, problem list maintenance, and HIPAA requirements in outpatient CDI.

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ACDIS Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient Sample Questions (Q41-Q46):

NEW QUESTION # 41
A prospective record review of a problem list states: "Upper respiratory infection (resolved), fractured right femoral head (resolved), metastatic melanoma (followed by oncology), hypertension, morbid obesity, and bipolar disorder." Which of the following query opportunities would provide the highest risk adjusted impact?

Answer: D

Explanation:
In ambulatory CDI risk adjustment, the largest RAF impact typically comes from ensuring accurate capture of high-weight, HCC-relevant chronic conditions-especially active malignancies with metastasis. "Metastatic melanoma (followed by oncology)" suggests an ongoing, clinically significant condition, but the wording could represent active metastatic disease, history of metastatic disease, remission, or no current evidence of disease. Because HCC models distinguish active metastatic cancer from history-only status, clarifying the current status (active/under treatment, recurrent, in remission, history) can materially change whether the condition qualifies for risk adjustment and how the patient's expected cost is benchmarked. By comparison, adding BMI (when morbid obesity is already documented) generally does not increase HCC capture, and fracture sequelae typically does not drive HCC risk scoring in the same way. Bipolar disorder may map to an HCC, but its relative impact is generally lower than metastatic cancer, making melanoma status the highest-value clarification.


NEW QUESTION # 42
Which of the following diabetic complications requires the assignment of a combination code plus the code for the specific complication?

Answer: B

Explanation:
In ICD-10-CM diabetes coding (as reinforced in outpatient CDI education), some diabetes manifestations are fully captured by a single diabetes "combination" code, while others require a diabetes complication code plus an additional code to identify the specific manifestation. Diabetic nephropathy and many forms of diabetic retinopathy are commonly represented by diabetes combination codes that already describe the manifestation with built-in specificity options (e.g., diabetes with nephropathy; diabetes with retinopathy with/without macular edema and severity). Osteomyelitis, however, is typically captured using a diabetes code such as "diabetes with other specified complication" (e.g., E11.69) to establish the linkage to diabetes and an additional code from the osteomyelitis category (e.g., M86.-) to specify the site, acuity, and type of osteomyelitis. From a chart review standpoint, CDI often queries to confirm the causal relationship ("due to diabetes") and to ensure the osteomyelitis details (site, acute vs chronic) are documented so both codes can be assigned accurately and compliantly.


NEW QUESTION # 43
ICD-10-CM code assignment can be supported by documentation from someone other than the patient's provider in which of the following circumstances?

Answer: D

Explanation:
Outpatient ICD-10-CM guidance allows certain code elements to be based on documentation from clinicians other than the patient's diagnosing provider when those elements are considered objective, routinely assessed, and commonly documented by nursing or ancillary staff. A key example is pressure ulcer staging, which is frequently assessed and documented by wound care nurses and other qualified clinicians as part of routine skin/wound evaluation. Because the stage drives code specificity and is an observable clinical finding, coders may use non-provider documentation to assign the stage when it is clearly documented and not contradicted by the provider record. In contrast, items such as the type of obesity generally require provider diagnosis/clinical assessment rather than ancillary documentation alone. Similarly, while status conditions (like amputations or ostomies) may be observed, the coding guidelines do not broadly permit assigning these diagnoses solely from non-provider documentation without provider confirmation, unless the chart otherwise supports it. Therefore, among the choices, pressure ulcer stage is the appropriate circumstance where non-provider documentation can support ICD-10-CM assignment.


NEW QUESTION # 44
Given the following CMS-HCC categories, which is the correct order (highest to lowest) in the hierarchy?

Answer: C

Explanation:
In the CMS-HCC model, certain disease groupings are arranged in hierarchies so that when multiple related conditions are reported for the same patient, only the most severe (highest-ranked) HCC in that hierarchy is counted for risk adjustment. This prevents "double counting" of clinically related conditions that represent the same underlying burden of illness. The cancer-related HCCs in the 35-38 range are an example of this hierarchical design: if a patient has diagnoses that map to more than one of these HCCs, the model retains the highest-ranked category and suppresses the lower ones. Therefore, the correct hierarchy order is from the most severe category (HCC 35) down sequentially through HCC 36, HCC 37, and HCC 38. From an outpatient CDI perspective, this reinforces why accuracy and specificity matter: documentation should clearly establish the most clinically severe, active, and treated condition so the correct (highest) HCC is captured, rather than relying on nonspecific or less severe descriptors that could under-represent patient complexity.


NEW QUESTION # 45
Which of the following is a form of a cardiac condition that may be treated with a beta-blocker?

Answer: C

Explanation:
Beta-blockers are commonly used in the management of coronary artery disease (CAD) because they lower heart rate, decrease myocardial contractility, and reduce oxygen demand-key goals in treating stable angina and in secondary prevention after myocardial infarction. In outpatient chart review, ACDIS-focused clinical documentation education emphasizes linking the medication to the condition being managed (e.g., "CAD with angina-on metoprolol for symptom control" or "history of MI-on beta-blocker for secondary prevention") to support accurate diagnosis reporting and demonstrate ongoing assessment and treatment. By contrast, third-degree (complete) heart block and sinus bradycardia are conditions where beta-blockers are typically avoided or used only with extreme caution because they can worsen conduction delay and slow the heart rate further. Cardiomyopathy can sometimes be treated with certain evidence-based beta-blockers when the clinical context is systolic heart failure, but the option most broadly and reliably associated with beta-blocker treatment in standard outpatient practice and documentation is CAD.


NEW QUESTION # 46
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