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| Certification Vendor: | ASHRM (American Society for Healthcare Risk Management) |
|---|---|
| Exam Name: | Certified Professional in Health Care Risk Management Exam |
| Exam Number: | CPHRM |
| Exam Format: | Computer-based, Multiple-choice questions |
| Real Exam Qty: | 110 (100 scored, 10 unscored pre-test items) |
| Certificate Validity Period: | 3 years |
| Exam Duration: | 120 minutes |
| Exam Price: | $275 (ASHRM members), $425 (non-members) |
| Passing Score: | Criterion-referenced, no fixed numerical score published |
| Available Languages: | English |
| Recommended Training: | CPHRM Exam Prep Course |
| Exam Registration: | PSI Testing Registration ASHRM Official CPHRM Page |
| Sample Questions: | ASHRM CPHRM Sample Questions |
| Exam Way: | Onsite at PSI testing centers or live remote proctored online |
| Pre Condition: | One of: Bachelor's degree + 5 years healthcare experience; Associate degree + 7 years; High school diploma + 9 years; plus 3,000 hours or 50% of job duties in healthcare risk management within last 3 years |
| Official Syllabus URL: | https://www.ashrm.org/education/cphrm |
>> CPHRM Training Questions <<
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NEW QUESTION # 109
When an FDA inspector comes to a facility, the risk manager should:
Answer: A
Explanation:
Regulatory inspections must be handled professionally with controlled communication and documentation practices. Verifying credentials ensures the inspection is legitimate. Accompanying the inspector supports accurate information exchange, maintains chain-of-custody for requested materials, and helps ensure staff do not speculate or provide inconsistent answers. Risk management objectives include ensuring compliance, protecting patient safety, reducing regulatory penalties, and documenting interactions for follow-up. Facilities should have an inspection readiness plan: designated escorts, document control, subject matter expert availability, and a process to log requests and responses. This approach reduces operational disruption, supports transparency, and demonstrates a mature compliance culture.
NEW QUESTION # 110
A 78-year-old patient in the ICU is unable to speak or swallow. The physician states that she is terminally ill and believes she lacks decision-making capacity. As such, he has deferred to her properly executed advance directive that clearly outlines her wishes for no life-prolonging treatment. The patient's three sons know of the directive, but insist that a PEG tube be placed to assist with feeding. The physician is opposed to placing the tube. The nurse calls the risk manager for advice. Which of the following should the risk manager advise?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Under Health Care Risk Management principles recognized by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, a properly executed advance directive carries legal authority when a patient lacks decision-making capacity. The physician has assessed that the patient is terminally ill and lacks capacity, triggering activation of the advance directive. If the directive clearly states refusal of life-prolonging treatment, including artificial nutrition and hydration, those wishes must be honored in accordance with state law and the Patient Self-Determination Act framework.
Patient autonomy is a foundational ethical and legal principle in health care. Once capacity is lost, previously expressed wishes through a valid advance directive govern care decisions. Family members do not have authority to override a valid directive unless legal defects or ambiguity exist. Their disagreement does not negate the patient's documented preferences.
Although ethics consultation can be helpful in managing conflict, the directive here is described as properly executed and clear. Additional determination of capacity is unnecessary because the physician has already made that assessment.
Risk management objectives emphasize compliance with advance directive statutes, respect for patient autonomy, and reduction of liability through adherence to documented patient wishes. Therefore, the appropriate advice is to support the physician in honoring the advance directive.
NEW QUESTION # 111
Information from the Data Bank (NPDB; includes former HIPDB content) can be requested by:
Answer: B
Explanation:
Access to NPDB information is restricted to authorized entities for credentialing, privileging, and oversight- not public browsing. HRSA's NPDB rules identify who can query and report;professional societies with formal peer revieware listed among entities that may query under certain circumstances. This limited-access model supports patient safety objectives by enabling credentialing bodies to identify adverse licensure actions, certain negative clinical privilege actions, and other reportable events, while protecting due process and confidentiality. From a risk management perspective, proper querying supports defensible credentialing and reduces negligent credentialing exposure. Equally important: organizations must maintain secure handling of NPDB responses and follow permitted-use rules to avoid compliance violations.
NEW QUESTION # 112
Which of the following should a risk manager consider when evaluating the effectiveness of a claims management program?
* indemnity-to-expense ratios
* total number of cases reported
* percentage of cases resolved within reserves
* percentage of cases identified prior to claim
Answer: C
Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management principles outlined by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, evaluation of a claims management program focuses on efficiency, financial accuracy, and proactive identification of risk exposures.
Indemnity-to-expense ratios are important performance indicators that measure the proportion of funds spent on compensation versus defense costs. A balanced ratio reflects efficient claim handling and appropriate litigation management. The percentage of cases resolved within reserves evaluates the accuracy of initial reserve setting and ongoing claims assessment, demonstrating financial forecasting effectiveness.
Additionally, the percentage of cases identified prior to formal claim filing reflects proactive risk identification and early intervention practices, which may reduce litigation costs and improve resolution outcomes.
In contrast, the total number of cases reported alone does not measure program effectiveness, as volume may be influenced by patient population, service lines, or reporting culture rather than management quality.
Claims and litigation objectives emphasize accurate reserving, early case identification, and cost-effective resolution strategies. Therefore, indemnity-to-expense ratios, resolution within reserves, and early case identification are appropriate metrics for evaluating the effectiveness of a claims management program.
NEW QUESTION # 113
What significantly impacts whether incident reports are discoverable?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Discoverability of incident reports varies substantially by jurisdiction and depends on how state and federal laws define peer review privilege, quality improvement protections, and confidentiality-plus how courts interpret those protections. Risk management objectives include structuring reporting and investigation workflows to maximize protected quality review where legally available: routing analyses through designated committees, labeling and handling documents per policy, limiting distribution, and avoiding mixing risk/peer review materials with ordinary business records. However, privilege is not automatic; mishandling (broad email distribution, using reports for disciplinary actions outside protected structures, inconsistent committee practices) can weaken protections. A defensible program uses legal counsel guidance, staff training, and clear documentation rules so the organization learns from events while reducing unnecessary legal exposure.
NEW QUESTION # 114
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