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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Incident Response Processes | 20% | - Conduct root cause analysis
|
| Incident Response Techniques | 25% | - Detect incidents
|
| Fundamentals | 20% | - Explain digital forensics concepts
|
| Forensics Processes | 15% | - Follow forensic investigation methodology
|
| Forensics Techniques | 20% | - Apply forensic tools
|
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NEW QUESTION # 104
Refer to the exhibit.
According to the Wireshark output, what is the Indicator of Attack?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The capture shows one source, 207.86.6.174, sending a rapid sequence of DNS queries to 205.94.14.222. The timestamps progress by roughly 0.04 seconds, producing dozens of requests in little more than one second.
That unusually high request rate is the observable Indicator of Attack; the exhibit does not establish that the queried domains are malicious. Requesting several DNS record types can occur legitimately, so option B is descriptive but not the strongest attack indicator. Option A ignores the abnormal frequency. CBRFIR Forensics Processes objective 4.3 requires analysts to examine traffic associated with malicious activity using network-monitoring tools and Wireshark display analysis. The defensible conclusion must therefore remain tied to what the packet evidence directly proves: a DNS-query burst from a single host, which warrants correlation with baseline, endpoint, and threat-intelligence data. Cisco CBRFIR v1.2 exam topics
NEW QUESTION # 105
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer analyzes an email containing a malicious URL that was flagged by Cisco Secure Malware Analytics. The engineer checks the TCP streams and notices that a domain downloads an executable file during the sample run. Which action determines whether the email is malicious?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The executable download and suspicious PowerShell behavior are artifacts produced by the sample's controlled execution in Cisco Secure Malware Analytics. The engineer should evaluate those artifacts- including the downloaded file's SHA-256 value, contacted domain, process behavior, and associated threat indicators-to determine whether the email's URL delivered malicious content. Cisco states that Secure Malware Analytics performs static and dynamic runtime analysis and reports sample activities involving network traffic and malware artifacts. Cisco Umbrella can supply domain reputation and DNS context, but it is not the source of the registry or file-activity sections shown in this analysis report. "Activity paths" is less precise than reviewing the relevant artifacts themselves. This maps directly to CBRFIR Incident Response Processes objective 5.3, which requires evaluation of relevant ThreatGrid report components. Cisco Secure Malware Analytics overview
NEW QUESTION # 106
A security team received an alert of suspicious activity on a user's Internet browser. The user's anti-virus software indicated that the file attempted to create a fake recycle bin folder and connect to an external IP address. Which two actions should be taken by the security analyst with the executable file for further analysis? (Choose two.)
Answer: B,C
NEW QUESTION # 107
Refer to the exhibit.
After a cyber attack, an engineer is analyzing an alert that was missed on the intrusion detection system. The attack exploited a vulnerability in a business-critical, web-based application and violated its availability.
Which two mitigation techniques should the engineer recommend? (Choose two.)
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
The alert indicates aWebDAV Stack Buffer Overflow, which is amemory corruptionattack targeting the stack, a common vector forremote code executionordenial-of-service (DoS).
To mitigate such exploits, two effective system-hardening techniques are:
* C. Address Space Layout Randomization (ASLR):Randomizes memory addresses used by system and application processes, making it difficult for attackers to predict where their malicious code will be executed.
* E. Data Execution Prevention (DEP):Prevents execution of code from non-executable memory regions such as the stack, thus stopping buffer overflow attacks from successfully executing payloads.
Both are well-established protections against stack-based buffer overflow attacks and are strongly recommended in the Cisco CyberOps Associate guide and general security best practices.
NEW QUESTION # 108
In a secure government communication network, an automated alert indicates the presence of anomalous DLL files injected into the system memory during a routine update of communication protocols. These DLL files are exhibiting beaconing behavior to a satellite IP known for signal interception risks. Concurrently, there is an uptick in encrypted traffic volumes that suggests possible data exfiltration. Which set of actions should the security engineer prioritize?
Answer: C
Explanation:
In highly sensitive environments such as secure government networks, the presence of anomalous DLL injection, beaconing to known interception points, and signs of encrypted data exfiltration constitutes a critical incident. The appropriate response in such classified contexts involves:
* Invoking a pre-established, classified incident response protocol,
* Immediately notifying national cyber defense operatives (such as national CERT or military cyber command),
* Prioritizing containment to stop lateral spread,
* Proceeding with eradication of malware or backdoors.
This response sequence aligns with the high-severity, immediate-response model described in the Cisco CyberOps Associate v1.2 curriculum under national defense and classified incident frameworks. The study guide emphasizes the importance of stakeholder communication and multi-agency coordination during advanced persistent threat (APT) intrusions involving critical infrastructure or defense systems.
Reference:CyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) 300-215 study guide, Chapter: Critical Infrastructure and Advanced Threat Response, Incident Response Phases for Government Systems.
NEW QUESTION # 109
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