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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Anatomy and physiology, pathophysiology, pharmacology, and medical terminology | 19.17% | - Anatomy, physiology, pathophysiology, pharmacology, and terminology - Clinical conditions and clinical indicators |
| Healthcare regulations, reimbursement, and documentation requirements related to the IPPS | 12.5% | - IPPS, MS-DRGs, reimbursement, and medical necessity - CC/MCC, CMI, Medicare contractors, and compliance |
| Communication skills | 9.17% | - CDI and coding roles and interdisciplinary collaboration - Physician education and effective communication |
| Impact of reportable diagnoses on quality of care | 8.33% | - Mortality, severity of illness, and risk of mortality - Quality metrics, reporting programs, and financial impact |
| Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting | 14.17% | - Coding guidelines, AHA Coding Clinic, HACs, and POA indicators - Principal and secondary diagnosis assignment |
| Professionalism, ethics, and compliance | 9.17% | - Query compliance, DRG creep, and audit risks - Confidentiality, DRG compliance, and ethical CDI practices |
| Healthcare facility CDI program analysis | 8.33% | - CDI productivity, provider response, CMI, and program metrics - Data analysis, forecasting, and performance measurement |
| Medical record documentation | 19.17% | - Documentation requirements and diagnosis or procedure code assignment - Documentation clarification and compliant physician queries |
>> Valid ACDIS CCDS Exam Objectives <<
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NEW QUESTION # 131
A patient with a history of heart failure is admitted with severe dyspnea and bilateral lower-extremity edema.
BNP is 1,000 pg/mL and echocardiography shows an ejection fraction of 25% with left ventricular systolic dysfunction. Which diagnosis should the CDI specialist consider when constructing a clinically supported clarification query?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Acute on chronic systolic heart failure is the intended answer. This scenario is adapted from an official ACDIS CCDS sample question, which uses dyspnea, edema, elevated BNP, reduced ejection fraction, and left- ventricular dysfunction to test appropriate heart-failure clarification.
The ejection fraction of 25% and documented left ventricular systolic dysfunction support a systolic phenotype. The patient's significant dyspnea and edema are consistent with acute decompensation superimposed on the established history of heart failure. Together, these findings create a legitimate opportunity to clarify type and acuity.
The CDI specialist must nevertheless avoid diagnosing acute-on-chronic systolic failure independently. The provider determines whether the findings represent acute decompensation, chronic disease, another heart- failure phenotype, or another explanation entirely.
Option A would require evidence supporting both systolic and diastolic dysfunction. Option B fails to capture the apparent acute decompensation. Option D conflicts with the documented systolic dysfunction and reduced EF.
This question illustrates a frequent CCDS theme: translating clinical indicators into a neutral clarification opportunity rather than assigning a diagnosis based solely on test results.
CCDS Reference Topics: Heart-failure acuity and type; ejection fraction; BNP; compliant query development.
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NEW QUESTION # 132
A registered dietitian documents severe malnutrition based on substantial weight loss, severe muscle depletion, and prolonged inadequate energy intake. The attending physician documents only "poor oral intake." What is the BEST action for the CDI specialist?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The appropriate action is to query the provider regarding the patient's nutritional diagnosis. The dietitian's assessment supplies important clinical evidence, but the associated diagnosis of malnutrition generally must be documented by an appropriate provider before the diagnosis code is assigned.
The FY 2026 ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines permit selected elements to come from non-provider clinicians-such as BMI, pressure-ulcer stage, coma scale, NIH Stroke Scale, certain social determinants, and other specifically identified exceptions. Malnutrition diagnosis itself is not simply assigned solely from a dietitian's diagnostic statement under this general rule.
Ignoring the dietitian's findings would also be inappropriate. CDI review should integrate multidisciplinary documentation because such documentation can reveal valid clarification opportunities. Severe weight loss, reduced intake, and documented muscle depletion provide a clinical basis for a neutral query.
The query should not state that severe malnutrition "must" be documented because it is an MCC. Instead, it should present the relevant nutrition findings and allow the provider to determine the diagnosis, including severe malnutrition, another level of malnutrition, another cause, or inability to determine.
CCDS Reference Topics: Malnutrition; multidisciplinary documentation; provider diagnosis requirements; clinical indicators.
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NEW QUESTION # 133
An operative report states that the surgeon performed an excisional debridement of a heel wound. The report documents removal of necrotic tissue but does not identify the deepest tissue level removed. What should the CDI specialist clarify?
Answer: C
Explanation:
For excisional debridement, documentation of the deepest tissue level actually removed is essential for accurate ICD-10-PCS procedure assignment. Relevant levels may include skin, subcutaneous tissue, fascia, muscle, or bone.
The presence of a deep wound does not establish that debridement reached the deepest anatomical layer visible in the wound. For example, a wound may extend to muscle while the physician removes only necrotic subcutaneous tissue. Coding must reflect the body part and tissue actually debrided rather than the overall depth of the wound.
Therefore, the CDI specialist should clarify what tissue was excised. Other procedural elements may already be supported by the operative documentation, including the excisional nature of the procedure.
The number of instruments or duration of anesthesia does not determine the applicable body-part value.
Similarly, administrative details have no bearing on procedural specificity.
CDI specialists working with surgical records must understand the distinction between wound description and procedure performance. Accurate procedural documentation can affect ICD-10-PCS coding and ultimately MS-DRG assignment, particularly when an operating-room procedure influences grouper logic.
The CCDS competency framework includes medical-record review and coding/payment implications of inpatient procedures.
CCDS Reference Topics: Excisional debridement; ICD-10-PCS; tissue depth; operative documentation.
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NEW QUESTION # 134
A patient is admitted with hypertension and stage 3b chronic kidney disease. The physician does not explicitly state that the CKD is caused by hypertension. The record contains no documentation indicating that the two conditions are unrelated. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate approach when assigning the working diagnoses?
Answer: D
Explanation:
ICD-10-CM presumes a causal relationship between hypertension and chronic kidney disease when both are documented, unless the provider specifically states that the conditions are unrelated. Therefore, the working coding logic should recognize hypertensive CKD and additionally identify the patient's CKD stage.
The FY 2026 Official Guidelines direct assignment of a code from category I12, Hypertensive chronic kidney disease, when hypertension and a condition classified to N18.- are both present. An additional N18.- code is required to identify the CKD stage. In this case, the documented stage is 3b.
A provider query solely to establish the hypertension-CKD relationship is unnecessary because ICD-10-CM itself supplies the presumed relationship. However, a query could become necessary if the physician explicitly states or strongly suggests that the CKD is unrelated to hypertension or if conflicting documentation exists.
The CDI specialist must distinguish coding conventions that automatically establish certain relationships from situations in which provider linkage is mandatory. This prevents unnecessary queries and supports accurate working-DRG assignment.
CCDS Reference Topics: Hypertensive CKD; presumed causal relationships; CKD staging; coding conventions; working MS-DRG.
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NEW QUESTION # 135
Which of the following is included among the FY 2026 Hospital-Acquired Condition Reduction Program measures?
Answer: D
Explanation:
CMS PSI 90, the Patient Safety and Adverse Events Composite, is one of the six measures used in the FY
2026 HAC Reduction Program.
CMS states that the program uses one claims-based patient-safety composite-PSI 90-plus five healthcare- associated infection measures: CLABSI, CAUTI, colon and abdominal hysterectomy surgical-site infection, MRSA bacteremia, and C. difficile infection.
Case mix index is an MS-DRG resource-intensity statistic and is not a HACRP quality measure. Query- response rate is an internal CDI performance metric. Patient-experience measures belong to other CMS quality frameworks, including Hospital VBP, rather than constituting a HACRP measure.
For FY 2026, hospitals with Total HAC Scores above the 75th percentile-effectively the worst-performing quartile-are subject to a 1% payment reduction under the program.
A CDI specialist should also distinguish HACRP from the separate HAC/POA payment provision. CMS explicitly identifies them as distinct programs, even though both involve hospital-acquired conditions.
CCDS Reference Topics: HACRP; PSI 90; healthcare-associated infections; patient safety; quality reimbursement.
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NEW QUESTION # 136
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