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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Topic 1: Quality, Risk Adjustment & Health Initiatives | 15% | - Risk adjustment models and documentation impact - Severity of Illness (SOI) / Risk of Mortality (ROM) - Quality reporting, public reporting, and compliance programs |
| Topic 2: Clinical Documentation Review & Query Practices | 20% | - Documentation gap identification and resolution - Concurrent and retrospective chart review methodologies - Query development, communication, and ethical standards |
| Topic 3: Coding Guidelines & Official Reporting Standards | 15% | - Coding integrity and compliant documentation practices - ICD-10-CM/PCS Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting - AHIMA/ACDIS Guidelines for Compliant Query Practice |
| Topic 4: Healthcare Regulations, Reimbursement & Documentation Requirements – IPPS | 15% | - Documentation responsibilities of medical and clinical staff - Medicare Severity Diagnostic Related Groups (MS-DRGs) - Inpatient Prospective Payment System (IPPS) fundamentals |
| Topic 5: Clinical Knowledge & Disease Processes Application | 20% | - Disease processes across body systems applied to chart review - Medical terminology, anatomy, physiology, pathophysiology - Clinical indicators, lab results, medications, diagnostic findings |
| Topic 6: CDI Program Management & Professional Practice | 15% | - Ethics, HIPAA, and professional conduct - Program metrics, benchmarks, and performance measurement - Provider education and training strategies |
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NEW QUESTION # 121
A patient has a history of a type 2 MI 30 days ago. The patient is admitted for chest pain which is determined to be an NSTEMI. Which of the following diagnosis(es) should be coded to identify the working MS-DRG?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The current NSTEMI is the acute condition driving the admission. The prior type 2 myocardial infarction occurred 30 days earlier, placing it beyond the ICD-10-CM four-week acute-MI reporting window. The Official Guidelines state that category I21 codes may continue to be reported while an MI is four weeks old or less; after that period, an aftercare code may be appropriate when continued MI-related care is being provided, or I25.2 may describe an old/healed MI when applicable.
There is an additional reason not to select a "subsequent MI" answer. Category I22 is restricted to qualifying subsequent type 1 or unspecified acute myocardial infarctions occurring within four weeks of the initial qualifying MI. Type 2 MI is classified to I21.A1 rather than I22.
Therefore, the previous type 2 MI does not support selection of a subsequent-MI option in this 30-day scenario. The active NSTEMI is the diagnosis relevant to the working MS-DRG. "Initial encounter" in answer B is exam terminology rather than an ICD-10-CM seventh-character designation for MI, but B is clearly the intended correct choice.
CCDS Reference Topics: Official Guidelines-acute myocardial infarction; working MS-DRG; circulatory disorders.
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NEW QUESTION # 122
Which of the following principal diagnoses groups to MS-DRG 884, Organic Disturbances and Intellectual Disability?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Vascular dementia is the correct answer. CMS MS-DRG logic places qualifying vascular dementia diagnoses from category F01.- within MS-DRG 884, Organic Disturbances and Intellectual Disability. The FY 2026 CMS MS-DRG Definitions Manual specifically lists vascular dementia codes among the principal diagnoses assigned to MS-DRG 884.
MS-DRG assignment depends on the principal diagnosis code, major diagnostic category, procedures when applicable, and other grouper logic. Therefore, clinically related forms of dementia do not necessarily group to the same MS-DRG. Alzheimer's disease is classified primarily as a neurologic degenerative disorder and requires appropriate dementia manifestations where applicable. Alcohol-induced dementia is classified within substance-related mental and behavioral disorders, while Wernicke encephalopathy is associated with thiamine deficiency and follows different classification logic.
For CCDS practice, this question illustrates why documentation of dementia etiology and type matters.
Simply documenting "dementia" can produce a less specific code and may affect MS-DRG assignment, risk adjustment, severity representation, and quality data.
The CDI specialist should seek clarification only when the clinical record supports a more specific dementia type.
CCDS Reference Topics: MS-DRG assignment; mental disorders; dementia specificity; IPPS reimbursement.
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NEW QUESTION # 123
A patient with cirrhosis presents with confusion and asterixis. Ammonia is elevated and the patient improves after lactulose administration. The physician documents "altered mental status due to liver disease." Which clarification would provide the MOST clinically specific documentation?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The findings create a strong clarification opportunity for hepatic encephalopathy. Cirrhosis, altered mental status, asterixis, elevated ammonia, and improvement with lactulose collectively support an encephalopathic process related to hepatic dysfunction.
The CDI specialist should not independently diagnose hepatic encephalopathy from the findings. Instead, the physician should be asked to clarify the condition represented by the documented phrase "altered mental status due to liver disease." Hepatic encephalopathy is clinically more specific than a nonspecific symptom such as altered mental status and has a distinct ICD-10-CM classification. Elevated ammonia alone is not sufficient to establish the diagnosis because ammonia levels do not always correlate directly with the severity of encephalopathy. The entire clinical picture must be considered.
Dementia generally represents a chronic neurocognitive disorder and does not adequately explain the acute presentation. Alcohol withdrawal requires an appropriate history of cessation or reduction plus characteristic withdrawal manifestations. Metabolic acidosis concerns acid-base physiology and is not supported by the described findings.
This is an example of CDI moving documentation from a nonspecific symptom to a clinically meaningful diagnosis without directing the provider to a predetermined answer.
CCDS Reference Topics: Hepatic encephalopathy; cirrhosis; neurologic manifestations; clinical indicators; documentation specificity.
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NEW QUESTION # 124
A patient is admitted with pneumonia. On hospital day 3, the patient deteriorates and the physician documents that sepsis developed after admission as a consequence of the pneumonia. Which diagnosis is generally sequenced first?
Answer: B
Explanation:
When a patient is admitted with a localized infection and sepsis develops after admission, the localized infection is generally sequenced as the principal diagnosis, followed by the appropriate sepsis code.
The FY 2026 ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines explicitly distinguish this circumstance from cases in which both the localized infection and sepsis are present on admission. When sepsis develops only after admission, the localized infection responsible for the original hospitalization remains principal.
Therefore, pneumonia is sequenced first in this scenario.
If the patient subsequently develops acute organ dysfunction related to sepsis and the provider documents severe sepsis, additional severe-sepsis and organ-dysfunction codes are assigned as appropriate. The severe- sepsis code cannot itself serve as principal diagnosis.
This question demonstrates why CDI specialists must clarify timing. Simply seeing both "pneumonia" and
"sepsis" in a discharge summary is insufficient to determine correct sequencing when the onset relationship is unclear.
The POA status of sepsis also becomes relevant because documentation indicates that it developed after inpatient admission.
CCDS Reference Topics: Sepsis; pneumonia; sequencing; timing; POA; principal diagnosis.
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NEW QUESTION # 125
A CDI manager notes that the physician query response rate is 98%, but only 55% of queries are answered before discharge. Which metric should receive the MOST immediate workflow analysis?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The overall response rate is excellent at 98%, but the fact that only 55% of queries are resolved before discharge indicates a meaningful concurrent-workflow issue.
Concurrent CDI is most effective when clarification occurs while the patient remains hospitalized and the physician has immediate access to the clinical context. Delayed responses can contribute to retrospective work, final-bill holds, coding delays, and administrative escalation.
The CDI manager should determine whether delays cluster by provider, specialty, query type, unit, day of week, discharge timing, or electronic-query process. Other factors may include insufficient notification, physician workflow, poor escalation protocols, or queries being issued too late in the stay.
CMI and MCC volume do not directly measure response timeliness and should not substitute for analysis of the actual operational problem.
Importantly, programs should not pressure physicians into rapid but clinically superficial responses. Query timing initiatives must preserve thoughtful provider judgment and compliant communication.
ACDIS identifies medical-record review, communication, query technique, and data-mining/reporting functions among core CCDS competencies.
CCDS Reference Topics: Query timeliness; concurrent CDI; physician engagement; workflow analysis; program metrics.
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NEW QUESTION # 126
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