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PassTIP는 여러분이 CSI인증CSC2시험 패스와 추후사업에 모두 도움이 되겠습니다.PassTIP제품을 선택함으로 여러분은 시간과 돈을 절약하는 일석이조의 득을 얻을수 있습니다. CSI인증CSC2 인증시험패스는 아주 어렵습니다. 자기에 맞는 현명한 학습자료 선택은 성공의 지름길을 내딛는 첫발입니다. 퍼펙트한 자료만이CSI인증CSC2시험에서 성공할수 있습니다. PassTIP시험문제와 답이야 말로 퍼펙트한 자료이죠. PassTIP CSI인증CSC2인증시험자료는 100% 패스보장을 드립니다
| Certification Vendor: | Canadian Securities Institute (CSI) |
|---|---|
| Exam Name: | Canadian Securities Course Exam 2 |
| Exam Number: | CSC2 |
| Real Exam Qty: | 100 |
| Exam Duration: | 120 minutes |
| Certificate Validity Period: | 3 years |
| Passing Score: | 60% (600/1000) |
| Exam Price: | CAD 450 - CAD 550 |
| Exam Format: | Multiple-choice questions, Computer-based, Scenario-based questions |
| Available Languages: | English, French |
| Related Certifications: | Canadian Securities Course Exam 1 (CSC1) Conduct and Practices Handbook Course (CPH) Wealth Management Essentials (WME) |
| Recommended Training: | CSI Official Study Materials |
| Exam Registration: | Prometric Test Center CSI Official Registration |
| Sample Questions: | CSI CSC2 Sample Questions |
| Exam Way: | Online proctored or onsite at Prometric test centers |
| Pre Condition: | Completion of Canadian Securities Course Exam 1 (CSC1) |
| Official Syllabus URL: | https://www.csi.ca/en/learning/courses/csc/exam-credits |
PassTIP는 여러분이 CSI인증CSC2시험 패스와 추후사업에 모두 도움이 되겠습니다.PassTIP제품을 선택함으로 여러분은 시간과 돈을 절약하는 일석이조의 득을 얻을수 있습니다. CSI인증CSC2 인증시험패스는 아주 어렵습니다. 자기에 맞는 현명한 학습자료 선택은 성공의 지름길을 내딛는 첫발입니다. 퍼펙트한 자료만이CSI인증CSC2시험에서 성공할수 있습니다. PassTIP시험문제와 답이야 말로 퍼펙트한 자료이죠. PassTIP CSI인증CSC2인증시험자료는 100% 패스보장을 드립니다
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질문 # 41
Which asset type is classified as a fixed-income asset for portfolio management purposes?
정답：C
설명：
* Fixed-income assets are characterized by predictable cash flows. Convertible bonds qualify because they have features of fixed-income securities (coupon payments and principal repayment) while also offering the option to convert into equity.
* Money market securities (Option A) are short-term, high-liquidity instruments and typically not classified as fixed-income for long-term portfolio management purposes.
* Preferred shares (Option B) are equity-like instruments with fixed dividend payments but lack the
"fixed-income" designation for portfolio management.
* Bonds with less than one year to maturity (Option D) fall under money market classifications rather than fixed income.
Canadian Securities Course Volume 2, Fixed-Income Securities Section.
질문 # 42
A bond with a duration of five is currently priced at $103. If Interest rates rise by 2%. approximately what win be me bond's price?
정답：B
설명：
The approximate price change of a bond due to a change in interest rates can be estimated using the formula:
Price Change (%)=#Duration×#Interest Rate\text{Price Change (\%)} = - \text{Duration} \times \Delta \text
{Interest Rate}Price Change (%)=#Duration×#Interest Rate
Given:
* Duration= 5
* Current Price= $103
* Change in Interest Rate(#\Delta#) = 2% or 0.02
Price Change (%)=#5×0.02=#0.10 (#10%)\text{Price Change (\%)} = -5 \times 0.02 = -0.10 \, (-10\%) Price Change (%)=#5×0.02=#0.10(#10%) The new price is calculated as:
New Price=Current Price×(1+Price Change)=103×(1#0.10)=103×0.90=97.85\text{New Price} = \text
{Current Price} \times (1 + \text{Price Change}) = 103 \times (1 - 0.10) = 103 \times 0.90 = 97.85 New Price=Current Price×(1+Price Change)=103×(1#0.10)=103×0.90=97.85
* A. $108.15andB. $113.30: These represent price increases, which are incorrect for rising interest rates.
* D. $92.70: This reflects a greater-than-actual price drop, which is inconsistent with the duration-based calculation.
질문 # 43
A firm implements a comprehensive due diligence process before allowing their firm to sell a few funds. The fund's high-water mark falls within what primary area of inquiry?
정답：B
설명：
A high-water mark is tied to performance fee arrangements, especially in hedge funds and alternative investment funds. It prevents the fund manager from earning performance fees on the same gains more than once. If a fund loses value, the manager must first recover the losses and bring the fund above its previous highest value before charging a new performance fee. Because this feature directly affects how the manager is compensated, it falls under the fees area of due diligence. Fund structure deals with legal organization and terms. Risk analysis examines exposures, volatility, leverage, and strategy risk.
Operations focus on processes, controls, valuation, custody, and administration. The high-water mark is primarily a fee-related inquiry.
질문 # 44
The following financial information is available for fund SKE:
What is SKE fund's net asset value per share?
정답：B
설명：
Explanation of Answer Options:
* Option A ($9.90) : Incorrect; this value does not reflect the subtraction of liabilities.
* Option B ($11.90) : Correct; it accounts for the subtraction of liabilities and proper division by outstanding units.
* Option C ($12.00) : Incorrect; it represents the market value of assets per unit without deducting liabilities.
* Option D ($10.00) : Incorrect; this value does not align with the given data or calculations.
References to Canadian Securities Course Exam 2 Study Materials:
* Volume 2, Chapter 17 - Mutual Funds: Structure and Regulation, Pricing Mutual Fund Units:
* Discusses the formula for calculating NAV per share, including the treatment of liabilities and market value of assets.
* Volume 2, Chapter 22 - Other Managed Products:
* Covers the concept of valuation for managed funds and its importance for accurate pricing.
* Volume 1, Chapter 11 - Corporations and Their Financial Statements:
* Provides foundational knowledge about book and market values used in calculations.
질문 # 45
What is the requirement regarding the discretionary authority in managed accounts?
정답：A
설명：
A managed account gives a properly authorized portfolio manager discretionary authority to make investment decisions without obtaining client approval for each trade. Because this authority is broad, it must be clearly documented and tied to the client's investment policy, objectives, risk tolerance, time horizon, and constraints. The trading authorization must specify the client's investment objectives so the manager's discretion remains controlled and suitable. Option A describes approval-based trading, not true discretion. Option B is wrong because discretionary authority cannot rely on verbal acceptance; proper written authorization and acceptance are required. Option C is incorrect because managed accounts are not defined by model portfolios or short-term use. The key requirement is documented authority aligned with the client's objectives.
질문 # 46
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