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Nursing AANP-FNP Exam Syllabus Topics:

SectionWeightObjectives
Assess32%- Obtain subjective patient information
  • 1. Relevant medical history (biopsychosocial, economic, environmental, family, military, travel, occupational, preventive components)
  • 2. Chief complaint and History of Present Illness (HPI)
  • 3. Review of Systems (ROS)
- Obtain objective information
  • 1. Assess health history and comorbidities
  • 2. Perform age/developmental level appropriate physical examination
  • 3. Order, perform, and interpret screening and diagnostic tests
Plan26.5%- Deliver education, counseling, and health promotion
  • 1. Provide anticipatory guidance (developmental, behavioral, disease progression)
  • 2. Provide age-appropriate primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention
  • 3. Apply pharmacotherapeutics and pharmacogenetics principles
- Establish patient-centered, evidence-based plan of care
  • 1. Prescribe, order, or administer pharmacologic treatments
  • 2. Prescribe, order, or administer nonpharmacologic treatments
  • 3. Initiate referrals or consultations
Evaluate15%- Monitor and modify the plan of care
  • 1. Adjust management based on patient response
- Evaluate the effectiveness of the plan of care
  • 1. Assess patient outcomes
  • 2. Appraise research (design, results, clinical applicability)
Diagnose26.5%- Synthesize and analyze subjective and objective information
  • 1. Prioritize differential diagnoses
  • 2. Develop a differential diagnosis list
- Establish a diagnosis
  • 1. Verify diagnosis through clinical reasoning and evidence

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Nursing AANP Family Nurse Practitioner (AANP-FNP) Sample Questions (Q52-Q57):

NEW QUESTION # 52
Which of the following patients is most likely to have severe joint symptoms as a result of Fifth disease?

Answer: A

Explanation:
Fifth disease, also known as erythema infectiosum, is primarily caused by parvovirus B19. This common viral infection often affects children, manifesting as a mild rash on the face, trunk, and limbs. Though typically benign in children, the disease can present differently in adults.
In adults, particularly those in good health without underlying immunodeficiency, Fifth disease can lead to more pronounced joint symptoms. These symptoms include pain and swelling, most frequently affecting the hands, feet, and knees. Unlike the presentation in children, adults, especially women, might experience these joint symptoms with little or no accompanying rash.
The immune response in adults compared to children may account for the variation in symptom presentation. Adults' immune systems can react more aggressively to the infection, leading to more significant inflammation in the joints. This heightened inflammatory response is why adults, particularly women, are more likely to experience severe arthralgia or arthritis as a consequence of the infection.
Given this information, a 43-year-old female in good health is statistically more likely to experience severe joint symptoms from Fifth disease compared to a 5-month-old infant, a 15-year-old boy, or even an elderly male. Women tend to have a higher prevalence of autoimmune diseases, which might influence the more intense immune response to parvovirus B19, thereby increasing the likelihood and severity of joint symptoms.
In conclusion, while Fifth disease is commonly a mild condition in children, in adults, especially middle-aged women, it can lead to significant joint discomfort. This distinction in symptom manifestation between different age groups and sexes is crucial for accurate diagnosis and management of the condition.


NEW QUESTION # 53
Christopher is a 3-year-old patient with scabies. You prescribe permethrin 5% (Elimite) for him. You tell Christopher's parents all of the following in regards to using this medication EXCEPT:

Answer: B

Explanation:
When providing instructions for the use of permethrin 5% (Elimite) cream for the treatment of scabies in a 3-year-old child, it's crucial to follow the correct application protocol to ensure the effectiveness of the treatment and minimize discomfort or adverse effects. Here's an expanded explanation of how to use the medication properly:
Permethrin cream is a topical medication used to treat scabies, which is caused by a mite infestation in the skin. The first step in the application of this medication involves preparing the child's skin. It is recommended to give the child a warm bath before applying the cream. This helps to soften the skin and may enhance the absorption of the medication. However, contrary to what might seem intuitive, it is important not to apply the cream while the child's skin is still wet.
After the bath, the child should be thoroughly dried. The skin should also be allowed to cool down to normal temperature. Applying the cream to wet or warm skin can lead to increased absorption of the cream, which might increase the risk of side effects. Once the child's skin is dry and has returned to a normal temperature, you can proceed with the application of the cream.
Permethrin cream should be applied to the entire body from the neck down. Special attention should be given to areas that might be easily overlooked, such as the navel, between the toes and fingers, and under the arms. In infants and young children, it is also important to cover the scalp, temples, and forehead. Care should be taken to apply the cream in all creases and crevices of the body where mites might be hiding.
The amount of cream needed can vary depending on the size of the child, but typically, one ounce is sufficient for one application on a young child. The cream should be left on the skin for 8 to 12 hours, usually applied at bedtime and washed off in the morning. This duration allows the medication to work effectively against the mites.
After the treatment period, the cream should be washed off by bathing or showering. It is important to wash all linens, towels, and clothing that have been in contact with the infested skin to prevent re-infestation.
Following these detailed steps assures that the treatment is both safe and effective, minimizing the potential for skin irritation or other side effects, and maximizing the likelihood of eliminating the scabies mites completely. Always consult a healthcare provider for any questions or if re-treatment is necessary, as misuse or incorrect application can lead to treatment failure or re-infestation.


NEW QUESTION # 54
Which of the following physiological changes would NOT be seen during pregnancy?

Answer: B

Explanation:
During pregnancy, numerous physiological changes occur to support the developing fetus and prepare the mother's body for labor. Understanding these changes is important not only for medical professionals but also for expectant mothers to recognize what is normal during pregnancy. Here, we will discuss why the statement that "Cardiac output decreases by 1/3 by the last two trimesters" is incorrect, and what actually happens to cardiac output during pregnancy.
Firstly, cardiac output, which is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute, actually increases during pregnancy, not decreases. This increase is necessary to accommodate the enhanced metabolic needs of the mother and the growing fetus. Typically, cardiac output increases by about 30-50% by the end of the third trimester compared to pre-pregnancy levels. This increase is facilitated by an increase in both the heart rate (tachycardia) and stroke volume (the amount of blood ejected with each heartbeat).
The initial statement that cardiac output decreases by 1/3 during the last two trimesters is therefore incorrect. The rise in cardiac output begins as early as the first trimester and peaks during the mid-second to third trimesters. This physiological adaptation helps to transport sufficient oxygen and nutrients to the fetus via the placenta and also supports the mother's increased metabolic demands.
Other changes that accompany the increase in cardiac output include a decrease in systemic vascular resistance and an increase in blood volume. Plasma volume may increase by as much as 50%, which dilutes red blood cells leading to physiological anemia, often referred to as dilutional anemia of pregnancy. The heart may also enlarge slightly during pregnancy due to increased workload.
Additionally, the statement mentions other physiological changes like the diffuse enlargement of the thyroid gland. Indeed, the thyroid gland can become slightly enlarged during pregnancy due to increased demands for thyroid hormones, which are crucial for fetal development, particularly brain development.
In summary, the correct physiological change during pregnancy regarding cardiac output is an increase, not a decrease. This increase is a crucial adaptation that helps meet the heightened metabolic demands of both the mother and fetus. Misunderstanding such fundamental changes can lead to confusion about what is normal in pregnancy and potentially misguide clinical assessments and interventions.


NEW QUESTION # 55
Your 72-year-old patient presents with edema, fatigue, and anuri
a. After testing, you determine he is positive for Glomerular disease. Which of the following would LEAST likely be a differential diagnosis for Glomerular disease?

Answer: D

Explanation:
Glomerular disease refers to a variety of conditions that affect the tiny filtering units in the kidneys known as glomeruli. These glomeruli are responsible for filtering waste products and excess substances from the blood, which are then excreted in the urine. When the glomeruli are damaged or inflamed, the kidneys cannot function properly, leading to symptoms such as edema (swelling due to fluid retention), fatigue, and anuria (absence of urine production).
The differential diagnosis for glomerular disease includes various potential causes and conditions that may present with similar symptoms or affect the glomeruli similarly. These can include acute renal failure, chronic renal failure, and cancer, among others. Each of these conditions can lead to glomerular damage either directly or as a consequence of the disease process.
Acute renal failure (ARF) involves a sudden loss of kidney function, often caused by an event that leads to kidney injury such as severe dehydration, significant blood loss, or toxic drug interactions. In ARF, the damage to the kidneys can include the glomeruli, making it a relevant differential diagnosis when considering glomerular disease.
Chronic renal failure (CRF), also known as chronic kidney disease (CKD), is the gradual loss of kidney function over time. Like acute renal failure, chronic renal failure can affect the glomeruli due to long-standing hypertension, diabetes, or other chronic conditions, thus making it another important differential diagnosis for glomerular disease.
Cancer, particularly cancers that directly involve the kidneys or secondary cancers that metastasize to the kidneys, can also impact glomerular function. Kidney cancers or systemic cancers such as multiple myeloma can cause glomerular damage either through direct invasion of the kidney tissues or through paraneoplastic syndromes.
Idiopathic causes refer to conditions where the cause is unknown. In the context of glomerular disease, idiopathic glomerulonephritis is a term used when there is glomerular inflammation without a clear underlying cause. Since idiopathic essentially means the absence of a known cause, it is included as a differential diagnosis by default in many medical conditions, including glomerular disease.
Given the options provided - acute renal failure, cancer, chronic renal failure, and idiopathic - all are potential differential diagnoses for glomerular disease, each possibly explaining the underlying pathology affecting the glomeruli. However, considering that idiopathic simply means that the cause is unknown, it would be the least likely specific differential diagnosis when more definitive causes (like acute or chronic renal failure, or cancer) are present and identifiable. Thus, idiopathic would be considered the least likely differential diagnosis in a scenario where other specific causes are identifiable and fit the clinical presentation.


NEW QUESTION # 56
The FNP has diagnosed a patient as having herpes keratitis. He refers the patient to an ophthalmologist. The FNP understands that the ophthalmologist will treat the patient with which of the following?

Answer: A

Explanation:
Herpes keratitis is an eye infection caused by the herpes simplex virus, affecting the cornea and leading to inflammation and potential vision problems if not treated appropriately. The Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) has referred the patient to an ophthalmologist after diagnosing this condition, indicating that specialized eye care is needed.
The appropriate and commonly prescribed treatment for herpes keratitis involves antiviral medications, specifically Acyclovir or Valacyclovir. These medications are effective in managing herpes simplex virus infections. They work by inhibiting the replication of the virus, thereby reducing the severity of the infection and promoting healing of the corneal epithelium. These drugs are typically administered orally and can be dosed twice daily (BID), depending on the severity of the infection and the specific healthcare provider's recommendations.
It is crucial to avoid the use of steroid ophthalmic drops in the treatment of herpes keratitis unless specifically indicated and managed by an ophthalmologist. Steroids can exacerbate viral infections by suppressing the immune response, potentially leading to a worsening of the condition. Their use might increase the risk of the virus spreading deeper into the corneal layers or becoming more severe, which can complicate the healing process and lead to further complications, including potential vision loss.
Therefore, the correct treatment approach, as recognized by the ophthalmologist, would be the use of antiviral therapy with medications like Acyclovir or Valacyclovir until the resolution of the active infection. This targeted approach helps manage the viral aspect of the infection effectively, promoting recovery while minimizing risks associated with inappropriate treatments such as steroid drops.


NEW QUESTION # 57
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