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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Topic 1: Dimensions of Care | 50% | - Chronic Care - Health Promotion and Illness Prevention - Acute Care - Assessment and Diagnosis |
| Topic 2: Physician Activities | 50% | - Management - Psychosocial Aspects - Communication - Professional Behaviours |
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NEW QUESTION # 259
A 62-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes comes in for follow-up. She has noticed that her vision has been getting blurry over the past year and that she now needs a bright light to look at photos of her grandchildren.
Upon fundoscopic examination, you note yellow deposits in the central retina. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: E
Explanation:
Yellow deposits in the central retina (macula) are most consistent with drusen, the hallmark finding of age- related macular degeneration (AMD). MCCQE objectives emphasize correlating key funduscopic findings with patterns of vision loss. AMD typically causes gradual, progressive central vision blurring (difficulty reading, recognizing faces, and seeing fine detail), while peripheral vision is relatively preserved. The history of needing brighter light for near tasks aligns with impaired macular function and reduced contrast sensitivity seen in AMD.
Diabetic retinopathy more commonly shows microaneurysms, dot-blot hemorrhages, hard exudates scattered in the retina, venous beading, and/or neovascularization rather than discrete drusen in the macula as the defining feature. Retinal vein occlusion usually presents more abruptly with extensive hemorrhages and
"blood and thunder" appearance. Cataracts cause lens opacity with impaired red reflex and generalized haze on fundoscopy rather than macular deposits. Open-angle glaucoma causes optic disc cupping and peripheral field loss, not central drusen. Recognizing AMD prompts appropriate counseling (smoking cessation, risk factor control), vision monitoring, and ophthalmology referral to assess for dry vs wet AMD.
NEW QUESTION # 260
A 67-year-old man presents to the clinic because of elevated liver enzymes. He is asymptomatic.His medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes, which is being treated with metformin. On physical examination, he looks well. His blood pressure is 125/75 mm Hg, his heart rate is 80/min, and his BMI is 35. Findings of the remainder of the examination are normal. His blood work results are as follows:
* Platelet count: 170 × 10#/L (130-380)
* Creatinine: normal
* GGT: 75 µmol/L (49-93)
* ALT: 146 IU/L (15-85)
* AST: 101 IU/L (17-63)
* Bilirubin (total): 17 µmol/L (3-17)
* INR: 1.2 (0.9-1.2)
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The patient is obese (BMI 35), has type 2 diabetes, and shows a hepatocellular pattern of transaminitis (elevated ALT > AST). These are typical features of nonalcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH), the inflammatory subtype of nonalcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD).
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gastroenterology, NAFLD and NASH:
"NASH should be suspected in patients with metabolic syndrome, obesity, and type 2 diabetes, especially with elevated transaminases and normal bilirubin or INR." MCCQE1 Objectives - Internal Medicine > Hepatology:
"Candidates should recognize the clinical profile of NAFLD/NASH, particularly in asymptomatic patients with metabolic risk factors and isolated liver enzyme elevations." Acute hepatitis B (A) typically has higher ALT and symptoms. Pancreatic carcinoma (B) affects biliary enzymes or bilirubin. Metformin (D) does not elevate liver enzymes. HCC (E) would often present with systemic or localized symptoms and abnormal imaging.
NEW QUESTION # 261
Which one of the following bodies decides whether a physician is permitted to practise medicine in a province or territory?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
The authority to license and regulate physicians to practise medicine is held by the medical regulatory colleges in each province or territory (e.g., CPSO in Ontario, CPSBC in BC).
MCC Objectives (ELOM > 90-1: Medical Regulation in Canada):
"Licensure to practise medicine is granted by the provincial or territorial medical regulatory authority." Toronto Notes 2023 - Ethics and Canadian Health Care System:
"Medical regulatory colleges determine physician licensure and discipline in each jurisdiction." The CFPC/RCPSC (C) certify physicians, not license them. Ministries of Health (A) oversee health policy, not licensing. Associations (E) advocate for physicians but do not regulate. Hospital boards (B) grant privileges, not licenses.
NEW QUESTION # 262
A 22-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her boyfriend, who says that she is experiencing a fentanyl overdose. She is unresponsive and cyanotic. She regains consciousness after naloxone is injected intravenously and demonstrates no further respiratory depression during 8 hours of observation.
She states that she is 22 weeks' pregnant and wants to stop using opioids. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: B
Explanation:
For pregnant patients with opioid use disorder, opioid agonist therapy with methadone or buprenorphine is the standard of care. Detoxification is not recommended in pregnancy due to increased risk of fetal distress, preterm labor, and relapse. Methadone reduces illicit opioid use and stabilizes both mother and fetus.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Addiction Medicine / Obstetrics:
"Methadone maintenance therapy is the treatment of choice for pregnant patients with opioid use disorder.
Detoxification is not advised during pregnancy due to relapse risk and potential harm to the fetus." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics > 80-3: Substance Use in Pregnancy):
"Candidates must manage opioid use disorder in pregnancy with evidence-based therapies, including referral for methadone or buprenorphine." Counselling alone (D) is insufficient as first-line therapy. Home detox (C) is unsafe. Inpatient detox (A) is not recommended in pregnancy.
NEW QUESTION # 263
A 56-year-old man is admitted to hospital with pyelonephritis and started on intravenous antibiotics. On day 2 of his hospitalization, he continues to report right flank pain, but he is able to walk. His vital signs are as follows:
Temperature: 38.5°C
Blood pressure: 90/60 mm Hg
Heart rate: 105/min
The patient is mentating well but is concerned about his dog that is home alone due to his unexpected hospitalization. He requests to be released from hospital as he needs to make arrangements for his dog. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The patient is alert and capable of making his own decisions. The most ethical and respectful approach is to ensure he understands the risks and accept his choice. Holding his bed maintains continuity of care. Forcing him to stay (C) or discharging him AMA (A) is inappropriate if he intends to return.
Toronto Notes 2023 - ELOM, Consent and Autonomy:
"Capable patients have the right to refuse or leave treatment. Physicians must ensure informed decision- making and maintain therapeutic rapport." MCCQE1 Objectives - ELOM > Capacity and Patient Autonomy:
"Candidates must respect a capable patient's right to leave care after informed discussion of risks and alternatives." Offering to enter his apartment (E) is inappropriate and unethical. Oral antibiotics (B) may not be clinically appropriate given hypotension.
NEW QUESTION # 264
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