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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Topic 1: Security Operations Strategy | - Security operations planning
| |
| Topic 2: Advanced Threat Intelligence and Analysis | 5% | - Adversary modeling and emulation
|
| Topic 3: Security Architecture and Defense Design | - Risk and governance alignment
| |
| Topic 4: Security Data Management | 20% | - Security data integration strategies
|
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NEW QUESTION # 76
Which security tool should be deployed as a control during code check-in and commit to scan code for vulnerabilities?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Static Application Security Testing (SAST) examines application source code or other supported code representations to identify potential security vulnerabilities without executing the application.
It is particularly suitable for integration into source-control workflows, pull requests, and Continuous Integration pipelines.
When developers commit code, automated SAST tools can examine newly introduced changes for potentially unsafe programming constructs, insecure API usage, injection vulnerabilities, hardcoded secrets, and other weaknesses supported by the scanner.
For example, static analysis can identify code paths in which untrusted user input is passed into database operations without appropriate validation or parameterization.
Integrating SAST early in the development lifecycle supports shift-left security practices by providing feedback before vulnerable code progresses toward production.
Findings can be incorporated into pull-request reviews and security gates, with enforcement thresholds determined by organizational risk policies.
Dynamic Application Security Testing, option B, operates against a running application and is therefore not the most direct method for analyzing source code during check-in.
A style and development guide establishes coding standards but does not independently perform automated vulnerability scanning.
Code Enforcement Management Software is not the recognized security-testing category needed for this requirement.
SAST should complement software composition analysis, DAST, manual review, and other application- security controls.
Official reference / study topic: OWASP Developer Guide, Static Application Security Testing and CI/CD integration.
NEW QUESTION # 77
During a SOC process and workflow review, the SOC manager notes that analysts spend considerable time moving among the EDR, remote access, and IAM consoles to add context to a finding.
Which of the following would reduce the time to resolution with these concerns in mind?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The scenario identifies inefficient manual enrichment and investigation workflows as the primary operational problem.
Analysts must repeatedly access Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR), remote-access, and Identity and Access Management (IAM) platforms to collect contextual information about security findings.
Automating initial triage directly addresses this inefficiency by gathering relevant evidence and presenting it within the associated finding.
A SOAR playbook can query integrated security platforms to retrieve endpoint details, account information, authentication activity, network context, and relevant threat-intelligence attributes.
These results can then support faster incident classification, prioritization, and investigation.
Splunk SOAR playbooks are designed to automate analyst workflows through integrated applications and predefined actions.
Splunk Enterprise Security also supports enrichment of findings using asset and identity information.
For example, an analyst investigating a suspicious login could receive the affected user ' s identity attributes, recent authentication history, endpoint status, and associated network observations without manually querying multiple consoles.
Option A introduces vulnerability scanning, which does not directly address the identified workflow bottleneck.
Option C may provide containment but is premature when the primary requirement is gathering context.
Option D improves reporting efficiency rather than initial investigation.
Therefore, automated triage with results presented in the relevant finding is the most effective solution.
Official reference / study topic: Splunk SOAR, Playbooks and Automation Rules for Enterprise Security Findings.
NEW QUESTION # 78
Which of the following are standard capabilities of a Threat Intelligence Platform (TIP)?
Choose three
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
A Threat Intelligence Platform (TIP) provides centralized capabilities for collecting, organizing, correlating, enriching, and distributing cyber threat intelligence.
Automated report correlation enables intelligence records from different sources to be associated through shared indicators, adversary identities, campaigns, malware families, and other relevant attributes.
This helps analysts identify relationships that might otherwise require extensive manual research.
High-volume indicator storage is an important TIP capability because intelligence feeds may contain large numbers of IP addresses, domains, URLs, file hashes, and other indicators.
The platform must support efficient indicator management, deduplication, confidence assessment, and lifecycle handling.
Built-in sharing functionality enables approved intelligence to be distributed to internal security platforms, operational teams, and authorized external partners.
Standards such as STIX and TAXII can support structured intelligence exchange between compatible systems.
Splunk Intelligence Management provides intelligence aggregation, normalization, enrichment, prioritization, and operational distribution capabilities.
Forensic image storage, option B, is not a standard TIP function.
Disk images and memory captures require appropriate digital-evidence storage, integrity protection, access controls, and chain-of-custody procedures.
A TIP may reference forensic evidence or consume indicators extracted from it, but it is not principally designed to function as a forensic evidence repository.
Therefore, A, C, and D identify the relevant platform capabilities.
Official reference / study topic: Splunk Intelligence Management, Threat Indicator Storage, Correlation, Enrichment and Sharing.
NEW QUESTION # 79
The increasing rate of cyberattacks has caused many countries to enact laws and regulations concerning the collection, handling, and protection of their citizens' private information, regardless of where it is stored.
Which term best describes these laws?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Data sovereignty concerns the application of legal and regulatory authority to data, including requirements governing its collection, processing, access, protection, storage, and transfer.
The concept is particularly important for multinational organizations because information may be subject to legal obligations arising from the location of individuals, processing activities, service providers, or applicable jurisdictions.
For example, GDPR can apply to organizations outside the European Union when their activities meet specified territorial-scope conditions.
An organization cannot assume that relocating personal information to infrastructure in another country automatically removes applicable privacy obligations.
Data sovereignty considerations therefore influence cloud architecture, contractual arrangements, cross-border transfers, government-access requirements, and the selection of service providers.
Data residency , option A, refers more specifically to the geographic location where information is stored or processed.
Residency requirements may be one mechanism used to satisfy applicable legal obligations, but physical location and legal jurisdiction are not identical concepts.
Data shielding is not the standard term for the complete set of laws described.
Data providence is not the recognized legal concept in this context.
It is also important to distinguish data sovereignty from an unrestricted claim that every country ' s laws automatically apply to all information concerning its citizens everywhere. Legal applicability depends on the relevant statute and its jurisdictional provisions.
Official reference / study topic: Splunk Cybersecurity Defense Architect: Governance Risk and Compliance, Data Sovereignty and Residency.
NEW QUESTION # 80
An alert has generated for a malicious file tied to a previously unknown malware. In order to protect the integrity of the investigation, how can the response team automate collection of evidence?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Pulling the file from the affected system and storing it in a secure vault preserves the evidence for investigation while maintaining integrity and chain of custody. This supports later forensic analysis without immediately altering or executing the malware sample.
NEW QUESTION # 81
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