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CompTIA CS0-004 Exam Syllabus Topics:

SectionWeightObjectives
Incident Response and Management24%- Incident Handling and Investigation
  • 1. Containment, Eradication, and Recovery
  • 2. Evidence Collection and Forensic Fundamentals
  • 3. Post-Incident Activities and Lessons Learned
  • 4. Incident Response Lifecycle and Frameworks
Reporting and Communication16%- Documentation and Stakeholder Communication
  • 1. Incident Reporting Requirements and Compliance
  • 2. Security Reporting and Documentation
  • 3. Risk Communication to Technical and Business Audiences
Security Operations34%- Security Monitoring and Analysis
  • 1. Threat Detection and Threat Hunting
  • 2. System and Network Architecture Security
  • 3. SOAR, EDR, and XDR Concepts
  • 4. SIEM Implementation and Analysis
  • 5. Endpoint, Network, and Cloud Monitoring
Vulnerability Management26%- Vulnerability Assessment and Remediation
  • 1. Vulnerability Prioritization and Risk Assessment
  • 2. Cloud and Container Security Vulnerabilities
  • 3. Remediation Verification and Tracking
  • 4. Vulnerability Scanning and Assessment

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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q36-Q41):

NEW QUESTION # 36
A recent security audit found that RCE was possible for a specific application server that requires public access for HTTP and HTTPS traffic. Which of the following controls should a security analyst recommend?

Answer: C

Explanation:
A Web Application Firewall (WAF) can help mitigate Remote Code Execution (RCE) attacks by inspecting and filtering HTTP/HTTPS traffic and sanitizing malicious user input before it reaches the application. Since the server must remain publicly accessible for web traffic, modifying WAF rules is the most appropriate control to reduce the risk while preserving required functionality.


NEW QUESTION # 37
A security analyst reviews the following report:

Which of the following explain the reason the analyst gives 1.15 the highest priority for remediation? (Choose two.)

Answer: B,C

Explanation:
The CVSS vector for vulnerability 1.15 includes PR:N, which means no privileges are required to exploit the vulnerability. This makes exploitation easier and increases risk.
The vector also includes AV:N, which indicates the vulnerability is exploitable over a network.
Remote accessibility significantly increases exposure because attackers do not need local access to the target system.


NEW QUESTION # 38
Which of the following is the most important component to include in the preparation phase of an incident response plan?

Answer: A

Explanation:
Clearly defined roles and responsibilities are foundational to incident-response preparation because responders must know in advance who has authority to make decisions and who performs specific technical, management, legal, communications, and recovery functions. Attempting to determine ownership while an active compromise is developing introduces delays, duplicated effort, communication failures, and potentially conflicting actions.
Preparation should define escalation paths, decision-making authority, contact mechanisms, incident leadership, technical responsibilities, evidence-management responsibilities, and coordination with business, legal, privacy, communications, and external parties where applicable. NIST's current incident-response guidance emphasizes preparation across organizational risk-management activities so organizations can respond and recover efficiently when incidents occur.
An after-action report is produced after an incident and documents the event, response actions, recovery, and lessons learned. Data-integrity validation is important during evidence analysis and recovery but is not the primary organizational foundation of preparation. Chain of custody must be established when evidence is collected and transferred, particularly where legal proceedings may occur, but it represents one procedure within a broader incident-response capability.
Without predefined ownership, even technically sound procedures may fail operationally.
Study Guide Reference: Incident Response and Management # Preparation # Incident Response Plan # Roles and Responsibilities # Escalation # Communication # Authority and Coordination.


NEW QUESTION # 39
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is notified of an ongoing incident. Which of the following explains why the CISO instructs the Chief Executive Officer not to discuss the incident over email?

Answer: D

Explanation:
During an active incident, attackers may be monitoring a compromised email system. Incident communications should therefore use a secure, out-of-band channel.


NEW QUESTION # 40
A binary file that might contain malicious code is hosted on an isolated machine. An analyst wants to quickly detect the malicious code. Which of the following should the analyst use?

Answer: D

Explanation:
YARA scans files locally for patterns and signatures associated with known malware. It is appropriate for an isolated system, whereas VirusTotal requires uploading or querying the file online.


NEW QUESTION # 41
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