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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Topic 1: Physician Activities | - Management
|
| Topic 2: Dimensions of Care | - Health Promotion and Illness Prevention
|
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NEW QUESTION # 77
A 26-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, presents with a positive pregnancy test. Her previous pregnancy was associated with preeclampsia, and she delivered a 1000 g boy at 34 weeks ' gestation. Her blood pressure is
130/86 mm Hg. Which one of the following is the best recommendation for this pregnancy?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Accurate dating is critical in pregnancies at high risk for preeclampsia and intrauterine growth restriction.
First-trimester ultrasound is used to establish gestational age, which guides monitoring and interventions.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Obstetrics, High-Risk Pregnancy:
"In women with a history of preeclampsia, early and accurate dating allows for appropriate fetal surveillance and timely delivery." MCCQE1 Objectives - Obstetrics > Prenatal Care:
"Candidates should recognize the importance of accurate pregnancy dating in high-risk pregnancies." Prophylactic labetalol (E) is not indicated in normotensive patients. Genetic testing (A, B) is not appropriate unless additional risk factors are present. Bed rest (D) is not evidence-based for preeclampsia prevention.
NEW QUESTION # 78
A 19-year-old woman presents to the office. She is a new mother. She shares that she does not intend to vaccinate her son. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: E
Explanation:
When encountering vaccine hesitancy, the first and most effective step is to open a non-judgmental conversation and explore the patient's reasons. This helps build trust and tailor subsequent education and counseling.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Public Health and Preventive Medicine, Immunization:
"Addressing vaccine hesitancy requires understanding parental concerns. Begin with open-ended questions to identify underlying beliefs and information gaps." MCCQE1 Objectives - Preventive Medicine > Immunization:
"Candidates must demonstrate effective communication with vaccine-hesitant parents, beginning with eliciting their rationale before providing evidence-based recommendations." Jumping to education (B) or punitive measures (C, D) may close communication. The patient is an adult; speaking with her parents (E) violates her autonomy.
NEW QUESTION # 79
You are a physician working at a university campus health centre. Staff at the centre are thinking about initiating a campus-wide education campaign on stimulant medication use and misuse. From a physician's perspective, which one of the following is the key message to include in this campaign?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The key public health message from a physician's perspective is the evidence-based health risks and adverse effects associated with nonprescribed stimulant use (e.g., insomnia, anxiety, cardiovascular events, and dependency). This is central to a harm-reduction approach.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Public Health & Psychiatry, Substance Use:
"Misuse of prescription stimulants is common among university students. Education campaigns should emphasize medical risks including cardiovascular complications, addiction potential, and psychiatric disturbances." MCCQE1 Objectives - Preventive Medicine > Health Promotion:
"Candidates should identify core messages in public education campaigns, prioritizing evidence-based risks and harm reduction." Legal and ethical issues (B, C) are important but secondary to the health implications. Prevalence data (D) informs the campaign design, but is not the message itself. Study habits (A) are relevant for academic counseling, not medical messaging.
NEW QUESTION # 80
A previously well 4-year-old boy is brought to your office by his mother. She is concerned by his behaviour.
Shortly after falling asleep, he awakens, screams loudly and cries. He appears frightened and does not respond to his mother's efforts to calm him. During these episodes, he appears agitated and flushed. After 15-20 minutes, he settles back to sleep. Physical examination is unremarkable. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: B
Explanation:
This presentation is characteristic of a non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep arousal disorder (sleep terror)
. MCCQE objectives highlight that sleep terrors typically occur in children aged 3-7 years and arise during the first third of the night , shortly after sleep onset, during deep NREM (slow-wave) sleep. Children abruptly awaken screaming, appear terrified, flushed, and autonomically aroused, and are inconsolable and minimally responsive to caregivers. Episodes usually last 10-20 minutes and resolve spontaneously, with the child returning to sleep and having no memory of the event the next morning.
Nightmares, in contrast, occur during REM sleep (later in the night); the child is awake, alert, consolable, and can recall the dream. Nocturnal seizures are typically brief, stereotyped, and may include tonic-clonic activity or a postictal state. Panic disorder occurs during wakefulness. Temper tantrums occur while awake and are behaviorally triggered.
Management is reassurance and ensuring safety; most children outgrow sleep terrors without intervention.
NEW QUESTION # 81
A 71-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department with sudden onset of shortness of breath and chest pain. He was discharged from hospital 1 week ago after a total hip arthroplasty. On examination, his respiratory rate is 32/min. There is visible respiratory distress, and chest auscultation is clear. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Sudden onset dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain in a postoperative patient with tachypnea and clear lung fields are classic features of a pulmonary embolism (PE). Recent orthopedic surgery significantly increases VTE risk. Clear lungs on auscultation support this over pneumonia or CHF.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Respiratory, "Pulmonary Embolism":
"Presentation includes sudden dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, and tachypnea. Risk factors include recent surgery and immobilization. Examination often reveals clear chest auscultation." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > Cardiopulmonary > 44-1):
"Candidates must recognize PE in patients with risk factors (e.g., surgery) and classic features and initiate appropriate diagnosis and management." Fat embolism (B) usually presents with petechiae, neurologic symptoms, and occurs within 24-72 hours post- op. Cholesterol emboli (E) are more chronic and systemic.
NEW QUESTION # 82
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