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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Topic 1: Identity and Access Management | - Cloud IAM controls
|
| Topic 2: Cloud Security Policies and Procedures | - Cloud application security policies
|
| Topic 3: Risk Analysis and Risk Management | - Business continuity and disaster recovery
|
| Topic 4: Legal, Compliance, and Ethical Concerns | - Compliance and governance
|
| Topic 5: Implementing Operational Capabilities, Procedures, and Training | - Security operations workflows
|
| Topic 6: Secure Cloud Service Models | - Cloud architecture security
|
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NEW QUESTION # 145
An organization is reviewing a contract from a cloud service provider and wants to ensure that all aspects of the contract are adhered to by the cloud service provider. Which control will allow the organization to verify that the cloud provider is meeting its obligations?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Continuous monitoring is the control that allows organizations to actively verify that a cloud provider is fulfilling contractual and compliance obligations. This involves automated collection and analysis of operational, security, and performance data. It enables organizations to ensure that service-level agreements (SLAs) are being honored and that compliance requirements are being met in real time.
While regulatory oversight is provided by external authorities and incident management is reactive in nature, continuous monitoring is a proactive approach. It allows customers to maintain visibility into provider operations. Confidential computing focuses on data protection but does not verify contract adherence.
By employing continuous monitoring, organizations establish transparency and accountability. It also supports audit processes by providing evidence that controls remain effective over time. This reduces risk associated with outsourcing critical functions to a cloud provider and ensures resilience against potential provider-side failures.
NEW QUESTION # 146
A warning system identifies an impending disaster. When should failover occur to ensure continuity of operations?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Failover should occur prior to the crisis event when an impending disaster is identified. Managing Cloud principles explain that proactive failover allows organizations to maintain service continuity by transitioning operations to alternate systems before disruption occurs.
Early failover reduces downtime, minimizes data loss, and avoids the risks associated with reactive responses during an active crisis. Cloud environments support automated or planned failover mechanisms that can be triggered by warning systems, ensuring seamless continuity.
Failover during or after the crisis increases the likelihood of service interruption. Therefore, initiating failover before the event is the correct approach.
NEW QUESTION # 147
Which entity provides common directory services?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) provides common directory services. Managing Cloud principles explain that LDAP is used to store and retrieve information about users, groups, roles, and permissions in a centralized directory.
LDAP supports authentication, authorization, and identity management by enabling systems to query user attributes and access rights. It is widely used in enterprise and cloud environments to integrate applications with centralized identity services.
RADIUS and TACACS+ are authentication protocols, and DNS resolves domain names to IP addresses.
Therefore, LDAP is the correct entity for directory services.
NEW QUESTION # 148
An organization's security architects determined that all authentication and authorization requests need to be validated before any employee can access corporate resources. Because of this, the organization needs to implement a system that stores and manages the employees' credential information and then validates any requests sent. Which system would allow the organization to meet the architects' requirements?
Answer: C
Explanation:
AnIdentity Provider (IdP)is a system that stores and manages identity information and validates authentication and authorization requests. IdPs are critical in cloud and hybrid environments, supporting protocols such as SAML, OAuth, and OpenID Connect for federated access.
An HSM manages encryption keys, not identities. Zero Trust is a security philosophy requiring continuous verification, but the system that enforces authentication is the IdP. A bastion host provides secure administrative access but does not manage identity.
By using an IdP, organizations centralize credential management, enforce multifactor authentication, and integrate with Single Sign-On (SSO). This reduces password fatigue, increases security, and ensures consistent access control policies across applications and services.
NEW QUESTION # 149
Which element should a company implement when looking to provide the most secure foundation and smallest attack footprint for virtual servers?
Answer: C
Explanation:
A Type 1 hypervisor provides the most secure foundation and smallest attack footprint for virtual servers.
Managing Cloud documentation explains that Type 1 hypervisors run directly on the host hardware without an underlying operating system.
By eliminating the host OS layer, Type 1 hypervisors reduce attack surface and improve isolation between virtual machines. This architecture enhances performance, stability, and security, making it the preferred choice for enterprise and cloud environments.
Type 2 hypervisors run on top of a host operating system, increasing complexity and vulnerability exposure.
Application isolation and virtualization do not provide the same foundational security. Therefore, a Type 1 hypervisor is the correct choice.
NEW QUESTION # 150
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