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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Topic 1: Dimensions of Care | - Acute Care
|
| Topic 2: Physician Activities | - Professionalism
|
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NEW QUESTION # 180
A 72-year-old man reports that his wife says he has hearing trouble. Examination reveals that air conduction on the right side is less than on the left side and greater than bone conduction bilaterally. He hears a tuning fork placed on the top of his head better with his left ear. Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The patient demonstrates signs of asymmetric sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL). In Weber test, sound localizes to the better ear in SNHL. Air conduction > bone conduction on Rinne test bilaterally supports SNHL. Audiometry is the best next diagnostic step to quantify and characterize the hearing loss.
Toronto Notes 2023 - ENT, "Hearing Loss":
"Audiometry is the first-line investigation to distinguish conductive from sensorineural hearing loss and to assess severity and frequency involvement." MCCQE1 Objectives (Medicine > ENT > 20-1):
"Candidates must know the approach to hearing loss and interpret Weber and Rinne tests to guide investigations such as audiometry." Imaging (A, C) is reserved for red flags such as unilateral persistent SNHL, which may later prompt MRI to rule out acoustic neuroma. Wax removal (D) is for conductive loss. Hearing aids (E) are management, not diagnostic, and come after audiologic evaluation.
NEW QUESTION # 181
A 65-year-old man presents to your clinic with a 2-month history of persistent erectile dysfunction. He reports having difficulties maintaining an erection. His last hemoglobin A1c level result was 6.4% (4.8-6.0). He had a negative result on his cardiac stress test 1 month ago. He has been taking stable dosages of citalopram, metformin, and ramipril for the past 2 years. His physical examination findings are normal, and his mood appears euthymic. Which one of the following investigations should be ordered before initiating treatment with sildenafil?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Erectile dysfunction (ED) in older men is commonly vascular, medication-related, or associated with diabetes.
This patient has well-controlled diabetes (HbA1c 6.4%) and a recent negative cardiac stress test , suggesting he is at low cardiovascular risk for sexual activity. MCCQE objectives emphasize cardiovascular risk stratification prior to prescribing phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE-5) inhibitors. Patients who are stable and cleared for moderate physical exertion (e.g., recent negative stress test) do not require additional cardiac testing before initiating sildenafil.
There is no indication for routine CBC, urine culture, PSA, or echocardiography in the absence of relevant symptoms or findings. PSA screening is unrelated to ED management and should follow age-appropriate shared decision-making guidelines. Echocardiography is unnecessary without cardiac symptoms or abnormal exam.
The key contraindication to sildenafil is concurrent nitrate therapy or unstable cardiovascular disease, neither of which is present. Therefore, no additional investigations are required before initiating treatment.
Counseling should include discussion of medication interactions, side effects (e.g., headache, flushing), and avoidance with nitrates.
NEW QUESTION # 182
A physician attending a sporting event with his family provides emergency treatment to a 65-year-old man who suffers a seizure followed by a cardiac arrest. The patient is successfully resuscitated by the physician on the scene and transported to a hospital, where he is found to have critically low blood sugar and subsequently suffers irreversible brain damage. Which one of the following statements is most accurate?
Answer: E
Explanation:
MCCQE objectives emphasize the distinction between ethical obligations and legal duties in emergency
"Good Samaritan" situations. Physicians generally do not have a legal obligation to provide care outside of a formal physician-patient relationship, nor are they legally required to accompany a patient to hospital. Good Samaritan laws are designed primarily to protect healthcare providers from liability when they voluntarily provide emergency assistance in good faith and within the scope of their competence; they do not compel physicians to act.
Professional ethical standards, however, state that physicians should render reasonable assistance in emergencies , considering their own safety, competence, and available resources. This reflects the profession' s commitment to beneficence and social responsibility. In this case, the physician appropriately provided emergency resuscitation. Subsequent poor outcome (irreversible brain injury due to hypoglycemia) does not imply negligence if care was reasonable and provided in good faith. Therefore, the most accurate statement is that professional ethics require physicians to render reasonable
NEW QUESTION # 183
You are covering for your colleague who is on vacation this week. You receive the results from an ultrasonography that had been ordered for a 32-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, aborta 0. The ultrasonography-estimated fetal weight is below the fifth percentile for 30 weeks' gestation; gestational age was confirmed by an earlier ultrasonogram. The amniotic fluid volume is within normal range. Her first child's birth weight was 2800 g at full term. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
An estimated fetal weight below the 5th percentile at 30 weeks is concerning for intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR). This warrants prompt evaluation of fetal well-being via biophysical profile and Doppler assessment. The patient should be referred for further fetal assessment immediately to rule out placental insufficiency or other complications.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Obstetrics, "Fetal Growth Restriction":
"EFW < 10th percentile, especially < 5th, warrants further evaluation including Doppler studies and biophysical profile. Immediate assessment is warranted to determine fetal well-being." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics > 80-4: Antepartum Surveillance):
"Candidates must initiate urgent assessment in cases of abnormal fetal growth to reduce perinatal morbidity." Delaying care (B) is inappropriate. Reassurance (A) is unsafe. ASA (D) is preventative, not corrective.
Doppler (E) is important but should be coordinated through obstetrical triage.
NEW QUESTION # 184
A 54-year-old man presents to the office because of progressively severe frontal headaches that are worse in the morning. He also has a chronic productive cough. He has a 30 pack-year history of smoking tobacco cigarettes. His blood pressure is 160/95 mm Hg. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: E
Explanation:
This presentation has "red flags" for raised intracranial pressure: headaches that are progressive, worse in the morning, and worsened by coughing/valsalva. In MCCQE objectives, these features require urgent evaluation for secondary causes (e.g., intracranial mass, hemorrhage, obstructive hydrocephalus) rather than empiric treatment for primary headache. His chronic cough and heavy smoking increase concern for an underlying malignancy with possible brain metastasis or paraneoplastic processes, further strengthening the indication for neuroimaging. Therefore, the best next step is CT head (often the fastest initial test to identify mass effect, hemorrhage, or hydrocephalus; MRI may follow depending on findings).
Treating presumed migraine with a triptan is inappropriate when secondary headache is possible and could also pose vascular risk. His blood pressure is elevated but not in a hypertensive emergency and does not explain these classic intracranial pressure features; serial BP monitoring or starting antihypertensives should not delay imaging. Temporal arteritis is less likely without temporal tenderness, jaw claudication, visual symptoms, or systemic inflammatory clues.
NEW QUESTION # 185
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