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This is the MCCQE PDF format which contains real MCCQE exam questions. You can print it and make a hard copy of this PDF file as well which helps you to prepare on the go. It comes in handy format and helps you prepare well with updated MCCQE Part 1 Exam exam questions. Moreover, this PDF has questions that are according to the present content of the test. This PDF format helps you to enhance your understanding of each topic which you need to self-evaluate to boost your Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Exam Score.
| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Physician Activities | - Professionalism
|
| Dimensions of Care | - Health Promotion and Illness Prevention
|
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NEW QUESTION # 71
A system administrator needs to install a GPU/DPU in a server. The server has a free PCI-e slot, there are enough free PCI-e lanes, and there is enough room for the card. Which procedure should be followed?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
The physical installation of high-performance NVIDIA components, such as H100 PCIe GPUs or BlueField DPUs, requires strict adherence to data center safety and hardware preservation standards. Option D is the only " 100% verified " procedure because it covers three critical pillars: Power, Compatibility, and Safety.
First, high-end GPUs can draw up to 300W-450W individually; verifying the server ' s PDU and internal PSU capacity is essential to prevent over-current shutdowns. Second, verifying cable compatibility (such as
12VHPWR or specific PCIe power 8-pin layouts) is vital to avoid electrical damage. Third, " Cold Service " (ensuring the server is powered down and cables are removed) is the standard for non-hot-plug PCIe components to prevent short circuits. Finally, wearing an ESD (Electrostatic Discharge) bracelet is non- negotiable when handling NVIDIA hardware, as static charges can destroy the sensitive HBM (High Bandwidth Memory) or the GPU die itself. Skipping ESD protection (as suggested in Option A) or performing the install while the system is " up and running " (as suggested in Option C) are leading causes of hardware infant mortality in AI infrastructure.
NEW QUESTION # 72
A 33-year-old woman presents to a walk-in clinic with a severe right-sided facial paralysis that started suddenly this morning. She denies any numbness or limb weakness. She has no headache or fever. Which one of the following findings on history/physical examination would suggest a more concerning diagnosis?
Answer: A
Explanation:
This patient presents with acute unilateral facial paralysis, most consistent with Bell palsy , a peripheral (lower motor neuron) facial nerve palsy. MCCQE objectives emphasize distinguishing peripheral facial palsy from central (upper motor neuron) causes , such as stroke.
In a peripheral lesion (e.g., Bell palsy), the entire ipsilateral face is affected, including the forehead, because the facial nucleus receives ipsilateral input. Therefore, patients cannot wrinkle their forehead, close their eye, or smile on the affected side. Associated findings may include hyperacusis and loss of corneal reflex. A recent viral illness supports Bell palsy and is not concerning.
In contrast, a central lesion (e.g., stroke) spares the forehead due to bilateral cortical innervation of the upper facial muscles. Thus, ability to wrinkle the forehead on the affected side suggests a central cause, which is more concerning and requires urgent evaluation for cerebrovascular disease. Recognizing forehead sparing is critical in differentiating stroke from Bell palsy in acute facial paralysis.
NEW QUESTION # 73
A 17-year-old boy presents to your clinic with a 6-month history of recurrent headaches. The headaches are excruciating, and he describes them as a stabbing pain, usually around his right eye. They occur several times daily for 2 to 3 weeks and recur every few months. The headaches are associated with tearing from his right eye and tend to get worse when he is overtired. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The classic description of brief, severe unilateral periorbital pain with autonomic symptoms (tearing), occurring in clusters (same time daily for weeks), is diagnostic of cluster headache.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Neurology, "Headaches":
"Cluster headaches: severe unilateral periorbital pain, often with lacrimation, nasal congestion, occurring in clusters over weeks. More common in young males." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 35-2: Headache Disorders):
"Candidates must distinguish among headache types based on duration, pattern, and associated symptoms." Migraine tends to last hours and has nausea or photophobia. Sinusitis causes dull, pressure-like pain. Tumour- related headache is progressive and worse with Valsalva. Post-concussive headache would have trauma history.
NEW QUESTION # 74
A 78-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her son because she has a sodium level of
124 mmol/L (136-146). The sodium was checked as part of a blood work panel ordered by her primary health care provider to investigate symptoms of urinary frequency, fatigue, and thirst. Today, she has a blood glucose level of 44.0 mmol/L (4.0-11.0). The original blood work done by her primary health care provider did not include glucose. The patient is treated for hyperglycemia and dehydration and begins insulin. The patient and her son repeatedly express their frustration that their primary health care provider missed the diagnosis. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: D
Explanation:
In situations involving potential oversight, the appropriate next step is to contact the other physician directly.
This supports collegial communication, continuity of care, and provides an opportunity to clarify the clinical situation. It avoids premature judgment while allowing the primary provider to respond and address concerns.
Toronto Notes 2023 - ELOM, "Professionalism and Interprofessional Communication":
"When concerns arise about another provider's care, direct communication is preferred before considering formal reporting. This maintains collaboration and fairness." MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 90-2: Communication and Accountability):
"Candidates must demonstrate collegiality and appropriate methods for addressing concerns regarding another physician's care." Empathizing (D) and validating blame is unprofessional. Reporting (B) is premature. Offering another provider (C) could undermine continuity. (E) is incorrect since the glucose should have been checked based on the presenting symptoms.
NEW QUESTION # 75
A 35-year-old woman presents to your clinic for follow-up regarding her persistent primary immune thrombocytopenic purpura. She was admitted to hospital with a relapse and received treatment with dexamethasone, intravenous immunoglobulin, and rituximab. She was recently discharged from hospital with a platelet count of 55 × 10#/L (130-360), and also continues to take 10 mg of prednisone once daily. She is scheduled for a splenectomy in 4 weeks. Which one of the following is the best next step in preparation for the patient ' s surgical procedure?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Patients undergoing splenectomy are at lifelong risk for overwhelming post-splenectomy infection (OPSI), particularly from encapsulated organisms. Vaccination against Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae type b, and Neisseria meningitidis is recommended at least 2 weeks prior to elective splenectomy.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Hematology / Surgery:
"Patients undergoing elective splenectomy should receive vaccines against pneumococcus, H. influenzae type b, and meningococcus at least 2 weeks before surgery." MCCQE1 Objectives (Hematology > 38-2: Thrombocytopenia and Splenectomy):
"Candidates must ensure vaccination prior to splenectomy to prevent postsplenectomy sepsis." Calcium (B) may be considered in chronic steroid users but is not the priority. Azithromycin (C) is not indicated. D is unsafe without tapering. E is only for acute bleeding or extremely low platelets.
NEW QUESTION # 76
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