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ACDIS CCDS-O Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Quality, Regulatory, and Health Initiatives: Covers population health, MSSP, ACO models, MACRA
  • MIPS, compliant query development, RADV audits, OIG compliance, problem list maintenance, and HIPAA requirements in outpatient CDI.
Topic 2
  • Healthcare regulations, reimbursement, and documentation requirements related to the Official Guidelines for
Topic 3
  • and billing: Covers Official Coding Guidelines, OPPS reimbursement (APCs), and professional billing concepts including CPT E
  • M codes and Medicare Physician Fee Schedule documentation.

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ACDIS Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient Sample Questions (Q36-Q41):

NEW QUESTION # 36
A patient returns to a PCP for follow-up care related to a UTI. The provider documents "stage 3 CKD" as determined by a single eGFR of 52 mL/min. Which of the following actions should the CDI specialist take?

Answer: D

Explanation:
The CDI specialist should review CKD staging criteria with the provider because assigning CKD based on a single eGFR value can be clinically unreliable and may lead to inaccurate documentation and coding. Outpatient CDI guidance emphasizes that documentation must reflect a condition that is clinically valid, supported by the record, and accurately described, especially for chronic diseases. CKD is generally established by evidence of decreased kidney function or kidney damage that is persistent, not a one-time lab that could be affected by hydration status, acute illness, medications, or transient physiologic changes. While an eGFR of 52 falls within the numeric range commonly associated with stage 3a, the key CDI issue is the foundation for diagnosing chronic disease, not simply whether the number is "reportable." Option A inappropriately directs CDI to add diagnoses to claims; CDI supports providers and coding, but does not independently "add" conditions. Option C is incorrect because chronic conditions may be coded when addressed/impact care, not only when actively treated. Option D is unsupported because eGFR 52 does not suggest stage 4.


NEW QUESTION # 37
An 81-year-old is seen by his family physician for continued confusion and poor memory. PMH includes HTN, GERD, and Parkinson's. The provider reviews the neurologist's consultation notes, evaluates the patient's current mental state, and addresses the diagnoses of HTN, GERD, and Parkinson's. The provider's problem list included: Dementia, GERD, HTN, and Parkinson's. Which of the following is the first-listed diagnosis?

Answer: A

Explanation:
In the outpatient setting, the first-listed diagnosis is the condition chiefly responsible for the services provided during the encounter. Here, the stated reason for the visit is continued confusion and poor memory, and the provider specifically evaluates the patient's current mental state and references neurology consultation notes-actions that directly support assessment of a cognitive disorder. While HTN, GERD, and Parkinson's are also addressed and may be reportable if they meet encounter relevance (e.g., monitored, evaluated, assessed/managed, or treated), they are not the primary driver for today's visit based on the presenting complaint. Outpatient documentation and coding guidance emphasizes sequencing the diagnosis that best explains the visit's main purpose first, with additional coexisting conditions listed afterward when they impact care. Since "dementia" is on the active problem list and aligns with the patient's cognitive symptoms and the physician's mental-status evaluation, it is the most appropriate first-listed diagnosis among the options.


NEW QUESTION # 38
PCP notes describe declining renal function with creatinine trending upward over the last 12 months. Nephrology consult ordered. Which of the following diagnostic tests could support a query to identify status of the patient's baseline renal function?

Answer: C

Explanation:
To establish and query for a patient's baseline renal function in the outpatient setting, eGFR is the most direct and standardized measure because it estimates kidney filtration capacity using serum creatinine (and patient factors such as age/sex, and sometimes race depending on the equation used). Outpatient CDI concepts emphasize that chronic kidney disease staging is based primarily on eGFR categories (G1-G5) and persistence over time, making eGFR trends particularly useful for determining whether the patient has CKD, whether it is worsening, and what stage should be documented. Serum creatinine alone can suggest decline but does not translate cleanly to CKD stage without calculating eGFR and considering patient characteristics. BUN is influenced by hydration status, protein intake, bleeding, and catabolic states, so it is less reliable for baseline kidney function assessment. ACR is important for detecting albuminuria and refining CKD classification/risk stratification, but it complements eGFR rather than replacing it as the primary indicator of baseline filtration function.


NEW QUESTION # 39
Which of the following is true of the RAF metric?

Answer: D

Explanation:
RAF (Risk Adjustment Factor) is a population risk stratification metric used in risk adjustment models to estimate expected healthcare resource utilization for an individual beneficiary relative to an average patient. In outpatient CDI, RAF is driven by a combination of demographic elements (such as age/sex and eligibility/status factors) and-critically-documented, coded conditions that map to risk categories (e.g., HCCs). The intent is not to "predict the provider's reimbursement" for the current year in a direct, visit-by-visit sense; rather, RAF contributes to actuarial projections of expected cost and supports payment benchmarking and budget setting in value-based arrangements (e.g., Medicare Advantage and certain shared savings models). RAF is also not based only on demographics (eliminating option B) and it does not determine reimbursement for each individual office visit (eliminating option D). ACDIS outpatient CDI emphasizes that accurate, specific documentation and coding of active, clinically supported conditions improves the accuracy of RAF, which in turn better aligns projected costs and comparisons across attributed populations.


NEW QUESTION # 40
A record review conducted prior to a primary care appointment indicates a patient has been followed for history of colon cancer. The patient is 18 months s/p bowel resection and is under treatment for LLE DVT, which required monitoring of INR - on Coumadin. The problem list also includes obesity, obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), COPD, and hypertension. Which of the following is the query opportunity?

Answer: D

Explanation:
In outpatient CDI, a prime query opportunity is any diagnosis with unclear "status" that materially affects coding, risk adjustment, surveillance, and care planning. "History of colon cancer" paired with "18 months s/p bowel resection" creates ambiguity: the provider must clarify whether the malignancy is still active (current disease, recurrence, metastasis, ongoing treatment) versus no longer present (history of malignancy, in remission, disease-free status, post-treatment surveillance only). This distinction changes code selection substantially and prevents inappropriate reporting of an active cancer when the encounter is actually follow-up after curative treatment. By contrast, ostomy status is not documented as present, and OSA/COPD "status" may be clinically useful but is not inherently ambiguous from the prompt in the same way (they are listed as chronic problems without a conflicting timeline event). ACDIS outpatient CDI practice prioritizes clarifying cancer status because it impacts longitudinal documentation integrity, accurate problem list management, and compliant diagnosis reporting at each visit.


NEW QUESTION # 41
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