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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Topic 1: Physician Roles (CanMEDS Framework) | - Communicator
|
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NEW QUESTION # 228
A 42-year-old woman is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit with a massive pulmonary embolism. Her condition is stabilized with intubation, hydration, inotropic support, and intravenous administration of heparin. Her partner provides you with a list of her medications. A combination oral contraceptive pill was recently prescribed. She smokes tobacco cigarettes, and her BMI is 36. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Oral contraceptives increase the risk of thromboembolic events, particularly in patients with risk factors such as smoking and obesity. However, informing the patient's partner of potential contributing factors in a factual, non-judgmental manner is appropriate and does not imply fault.
Toronto Notes 2023 - ELOM, "Informed Consent and Risk Communication":
"Patients and families should be informed of all relevant information, including potential drug-related adverse events. Blame must not be assigned without full investigation." MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 90-2: Physician-Patient Communication):
"Candidates must be able to communicate adverse outcomes factually, while respecting confidentiality and without prematurely assigning fault." Discussing the case with the ethics committee or reporting the prescribing doctor without context is premature and inappropriate (A, D). Telling the partner the physician was at fault (C) is speculative and unethical.
NEW QUESTION # 229
A 62-year-old man, who has not seen a physician in 20 years, presents to your clinic with a burning sensation in his feet. The symptoms have been progressing slowly over the last 6 months. There is no associated motor weakness or skin changes. He reports no significant past medical history and takes no medications. His alcohol intake is minimal. On examination, he has reduced pinprick/vibration sensation and proprioception in the ankles with absent ankle reflexes. Which one of the following blood tests would you expect to be abnormal?
Answer: C
Explanation:
This is a classic presentation of diabetic peripheral neuropathy: bilateral distal sensory symptoms with preserved motor function and no other systemic findings. The most useful test to confirm this in a previously undiagnosed patient is HbA1c.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Endocrinology, Diabetes Complications:
"Peripheral neuropathy is a common complication of undiagnosed or poorly controlled diabetes. Confirm with HbA1c if diagnosis is not yet established." MCCQE1 Objectives - Internal Medicine > Endocrinology:
"Candidates should evaluate for diabetes in patients with peripheral neuropathy and screen appropriately with HbA1c." Folate (B) and B12 deficiency may also cause neuropathy but are less likely in the absence of nutritional risk factors. Other choices (A, D, E) are unrelated to this pattern.
NEW QUESTION # 230
You are providing antenatal consultation to a primiparous woman of 37 weeks' gestation who was admitted for labour induction. Repeat prenatal ultrasounds confirm a chronically small fetus who has never demonstrated easily detectable fetal movement. Maternal health has been normal throughout the pregnancy and she has received all antenatal serum screening. This fetus is at significant risk for which one of the following?
Answer: D
Explanation:
A fetus that is chronically growth-restricted and has persistently reduced fetal movement raises concern for an underlying fetal condition rather than isolated placental insufficiency. MCCQE objectives emphasize that early-onset or persistent fetal growth restriction , especially when accompanied by abnormal fetal behavior (notably reduced movement), is associated with higher rates of aneuploidy and other chromosomal disorders (e.g., trisomy syndromes), as well as congenital anomalies and neuromuscular disorders. Among the listed options, chromosomal abnormalities best fit the combined pattern of longstanding small size and consistently diminished movement.
Normal maternal serum screening reduces risk but does not eliminate it; screening tests can miss chromosomal abnormalities, and some aneuploidies may not be reliably detected depending on the test used and gestational timing. Spina bifida is more typically associated with elevated maternal serum AFP and structural findings on ultrasound. Fetal stroke is usually an acute event with more abrupt changes. Congenital hypothyroidism and infantile diabetes are not typical causes of markedly reduced fetal movement with chronic growth restriction.
NEW QUESTION # 231
A 69-year-old man presents with a 4-day history of a painful right knee. On history, he denies any trauma or similar previous episodes. Examination reveals effusion of the right knee that is warm to the touch. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The first step in evaluating a new, hot, swollen joint is arthrocentesis to rule out septic arthritis and crystal arthropathy. Joint aspiration provides fluid for microscopy, culture, and crystal analysis, which guides definitive diagnosis and treatment.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Rheumatology, Monoarthritis:
"Joint aspiration is the most important first step in evaluating monoarthritis. Septic arthritis must be ruled out before initiating any therapy." MCCQE1 Objectives - Internal Medicine > Rheumatology:
"Candidates should perform joint aspiration in the presence of acute monoarthritis to differentiate between septic arthritis, gout, and other causes." Radiography (A) and serum uric acid (B) do not establish cause acutely. Empiric antibiotics (D) and NSAIDs (E) should only be started after ruling out septic arthritis.
NEW QUESTION # 232
A 32-year-old primigravid woman is receiving magnesium sulfate for tocolysis. Her pregnancy is at 26 weeks' gestation. You suspect magnesium sulfate toxicity. Which one of the following is the first sign of magnesium sulfate toxicity?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Magnesium sulfate toxicity is dose-dependent. The earliest and most sensitive clinical sign is theloss of deep tendon reflexes (especially patellar), which occurs before respiratory depression or cardiac changes.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Obstetrics Chapter:
"Toxicity from magnesium sulfate is progressive and typically presents first with loss of deep tendon reflexes.
Respiratory depression and cardiac arrest occur at higher serum levels. Regular monitoring of reflexes, respiratory rate, and urine output is essential." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics > 83-3: Preterm Labour and Tocolysis):
"The candidate must recognize early signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity including areflexia and respiratory depression." Tachycardia (B), hypotension (C), and tachypnea (D) are not typical early signs. Oliguria (E) may be a risk factor for accumulation but is not the first sign of toxicity.
NEW QUESTION # 233
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