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NEW QUESTION # 358
Which of the following risks is most prevalent in callable bonds?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, Reinvestment risk. Callable bonds give the issuer the right to redeem (call) the bond before maturity, typically when interest rates decline. This feature creates a specific risk for investors.
Step-by-step, when interest rates fall, issuers are more likely to call their bonds and refinance at lower rates.
When this happens, investors receive their principal back earlier than expected. The problem is that they must then reinvest those funds at lower prevailing interest rates, which reduces their overall return. This is known as reinvestment risk.
Callable bonds are particularly exposed to this risk because they are often called precisely when it is least favorable for investors-when yields in the market are lower than the bond's original coupon rate.
Choice A, market risk, affects all securities and is not unique to callable bonds. Choice B, political risk, applies mainly to foreign investments. Choice C, liquidity risk, relates to the ease of buying or selling a bond and is not the defining risk of callable bonds.
Thus, the most significant and characteristic risk associated with callable bonds is reinvestment risk, making Answer D correct.
NEW QUESTION # 359
A Treasury bill is issued under which of the following terms?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Treasury bills (T-bills) are short-term debt securities issued at a discount to par value. The difference between the purchase price and the par value represents the investor's interest income, which is realized when the T- bill matures.
* C is correct because T-bills are issued at a discount and mature at par.
* A is incorrect because T-bills are not sold at par value.
* B and D are incorrect because T-bills do not pay periodic interest; the return is based on the discount.
Reference: SIE Study Guide, Chapter 3: U.S. Treasury Securities
NEW QUESTION # 360
SEC regulations permit a company to issue securities exempted from registration requirements of the Securities Act of 1933 under which of the following conditions?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Step by Step Explanation:
* Regulation D (Rule 506(b)): Allows offerings to an unlimited number of accredited investors and up to
35 non-accredited investors, provided certain disclosure requirements are met.
* Incorrect Options:
* A: Refers to Regulation S, which governs offshore offerings, not domestic exemptions.
* B: There is no 40-investor limit in Regulation D.
* C: The $5 million limit applies to Rule 504, not Rule 506(b).
References:
* SEC Regulation D: SEC Regulation D.
NEW QUESTION # 361
Which of the following investments provides foreign investment exposure?
Answer: D
Explanation:
American Depositary Receipts (ADRs) provide U.S. investors with exposure to foreign companies, making D correct. An ADR is a negotiable receipt issued by a U.S. depository bank representing shares (or a fraction of shares) in a non-U.S. company. ADRs trade in U.S. markets and are typically priced and settle in U.S. dollars, which can make foreign investing more operationally convenient for U.S. investors while still offering exposure to the underlying foreign issuer's business and its home-market risks.
Choice A (Treasury bills) are U.S. government debt instruments and do not provide foreign exposure. Choice B (municipal bonds) are issued by U.S. states, cities, and other municipal entities, so they are domestic.
Choice C (SPY) is an ETF designed to track the S&P 500, which is a U.S. large-cap equity index; while some underlying companies may have international operations, SPY is not typically considered a direct "foreign investment exposure" vehicle in SIE terms. ADRs are the clean, direct answer because the underlying issuer is foreign.
On the SIE, ADRs are tested as an equity product type and as a method of gaining international exposure, along with related concepts such as currency considerations (even if ADRs trade in dollars, the underlying business may be exposed to currency and foreign political/economic risk), and the role of depository banks.
NEW QUESTION # 362
A registered representative (RR) at a member firm is the subject of a statutory disqualification. Which of the following statements is true?
Answer: D
Explanation:
A statutory disqualification occurs if an RR has been convicted of certain crimes, violated securities laws, or been barred by a regulatory authority. Under FINRA rules, the RR cannot associate with a member firm in any capacity unless they obtain a waiver from FINRA.
* B is correct because the disqualified person must obtain a waiver to continue employment.
* A and C are incorrect because the RR is not allowed to associate with the firm in any capacity without a waiver.
* D is incorrect because statutory disqualification directly affects the RR's employment status.
Reference: FINRA By-Laws, Article III, Section 4; FINRA Rule 9520 (Eligibility Proceedings)
NEW QUESTION # 363
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