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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Topic 1: Identity and Access Management (IAM) | - Authentication and authorization in cloud systems
|
| Topic 2: Cloud Security Governance | - Security policies and compliance frameworks in cloud environments
|
| Topic 3: Cloud Security Architecture | - Secure cloud design principles
|
| Topic 4: Security Monitoring and Incident Response | - Detection and response in cloud environments
|
| Topic 5: Risk Management and Compliance | - Cloud risk assessment and mitigation
|
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NEW QUESTION # 117
Which security concept requires continuous identity and authorization checks to allow access to data?
Answer: D
Explanation:
TheZero Trustsecurity model assumes that no user, device, or application should be trusted by default, whether inside or outside the network perimeter. Every access request must be continuously verified using strict identity, authorization, and context-based checks.
Unlike traditional perimeter security, Zero Trust emphasizes the principle of "never trust, always verify." Traffic inspection looks at data packets, intrusion prevention identifies malicious activity, and secret management safeguards sensitive keys and credentials. None of these approaches enforce constant, adaptive identity verification the way Zero Trust does.
By adopting Zero Trust, organizations ensure that access is not granted simply because a user is "inside" the network. Instead, continuous checks evaluate credentials, device posture, location, and other risk factors. This significantly reduces the risk of insider threats, credential theft, and lateral movement within cloud environments.
NEW QUESTION # 118
Which item determines whether a server has the capacity and the instance allocation to meet a customer's requirements?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The cloud controller determines whether a server has sufficient capacity and appropriate instance allocation to meet customer requirements. Managing Cloud principles explain that the cloud controller manages resource scheduling, provisioning, and allocation across the cloud infrastructure.
It evaluates available compute, memory, storage, and network resources before assigning workloads to physical or virtual servers. This ensures that customer requests are fulfilled without overcommitting resources or degrading performance.
A cloud provider delivers services, an instance provider is not a standard cloud role, and a UniFi controller manages networking devices. Therefore, the cloud controller is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 119
Which activity is within the scope of the cloud provider's role in the chain of custody?
Answer: D
Explanation:
In cloud environments, the provider's role in thechain of custodyprimarily involvescollecting and preserving digital evidencewhen incidents or investigations occur. Because providers manage the infrastructure, they have direct access to logs, storage systems, and virtual machines necessary for evidence collection.
Backup policies and incident response may involve collaboration, but they remain customer responsibilities in many service models. Data classification and analysis are business-driven tasks, which customers must handle.
Providers must ensure that evidence collection is forensically sound and documented properly to maintain legal admissibility. This responsibility is critical in maintaining trust and ensuring compliance with laws and contractual obligations. It reinforces the shared responsibility model by clearly defining which aspects of digital forensics belong to the provider.
NEW QUESTION # 120
Which testing standard is currently used to guide Service Organization Control (SOC) audits outside the United States?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Outside the United States,ISAE 3402 (International Standard on Assurance Engagements 3402)is the standard used for audits equivalent to SOC reports. It ensures that service organizations demonstrate adequate internal controls over financial reporting and operational processes.
SSAE 18 is the U.S. standard governing SOC audits. ISRE 2400 and SSARS 25 focus on accounting and review services, not assurance over service organizations.
ISAE 3402 provides assurance to international customers that cloud providers or service organizations meet rigorous standards for security, availability, processing integrity, confidentiality, and privacy. This builds global trust and interoperability in compliance frameworks.
NEW QUESTION # 121
Which release management term describes the process from code implementation to code review and approval to automated testing and then to production deployment?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Apipelinerefers to the structured process of moving code from development to production, encompassing implementation, review, automated testing, and deployment. In DevOps, this is known as a CI/CD pipeline (Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment).
An iteration refers to a development cycle, a baseline represents a stable reference configuration, and a framework provides structure but not a deployment sequence. Only pipeline accurately captures the sequential, automated flow of code into production.
Pipelines enhance efficiency, consistency, and quality assurance by automating repetitive tasks, reducing human error, and ensuring that code changes are validated before reaching production. They are essential for modern cloud-native applications where rapid deployment is expected.
NEW QUESTION # 122
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