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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Physician Activities | - Communication
|
| Dimensions of Care | - Acute Care
|
>> MCCQE Prüfungsvorbereitung <<
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334. Frage
A 38-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, aborta 0, presents to the labour and delivery unit for induction of labour. Her pregnancy is at 42 weeks' gestation and has been uncomplicated to date. Which one of the following is the most appropriate information to provide to the patient?
Antwort: B
Begründung:
This patient has a post-term pregnancy (#42 weeks' gestation). Post-term pregnancies are associated with increased risks including placental insufficiency, oligohydramnios, meconium aspiration, fetal macrosomia, and stillbirth. During induction and labour in post-term pregnancies, continuous electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) is recommended to assess fetal well-being and detect signs of fetal distress early.
Prostaglandin induction is not contraindicated; it is commonly used for cervical ripening when indicated, provided there are no standard contraindications (e.g., prior classical cesarean). Cesarean delivery is not routinely preferred solely due to post-term status; mode of delivery should be based on obstetric indications.
According to MCCQE objectives, candidates must recognize the risks associated with post-term pregnancy and understand appropriate intrapartum management, including fetal surveillance. Continuous EFM is recommended in higher-risk situations such as post-term gestation to optimize perinatal outcomes while still aiming for safe vaginal delivery when no contraindications exist.
335. Frage
A 60-year-old man is admitted to hospital, and lung cancer is diagnosed. When his family physician reviews the discharge summary, she reviews the patient's chart and finds a chest radiograph report from 1 year ago that mentions a suspicious nodule and recommends a computed tomography scan. The family physician recalls seeing this report and did not order the scan. Which one of the following is the family physician's best next step?
Antwort: D
Begründung:
The correct next step is to communicate with the patient and disclose the error . MCCQE objectives emphasize physicians' ethical and professional obligations regarding disclosure of adverse events and medical errors . When a clinically significant abnormal result was identified and appropriate follow-up was not arranged, this represents a potential error in care. Physicians have a duty to disclose errors that may have contributed to harm, provide an explanation, express regret, and outline next steps in management.
Withholding disclosure violates principles of honesty, transparency, and respect for patient autonomy.
Blaming office staff or the radiologist deflects responsibility and does not address the ethical obligation to the patient. Forwarding the report to oncology does not fulfill the duty of disclosure. The physician should arrange a timely, compassionate conversation with the patient, explain the missed follow-up, discuss implications, and outline ongoing management. Documentation of the discussion and engagement in quality improvement processes are also appropriate subsequent steps.
336. Frage
A 34-year-old man sustained a blunt testicular trauma 2 hours ago. On physical examination, the patient has a
1.5-cm tall scrotal hematoma. You cannot palpate the testicle. Which one of the following is the best initial management?
Antwort: A
Begründung:
In cases of blunt testicular trauma with inability to palpate the testicle due to hematoma, scrotal ultrasonography is the first-line investigation to assess for testicular rupture or other injury.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Urology, "Testicular Trauma":
"Scrotal ultrasound is the investigation of choice to assess for testicular rupture, hematoma, or torsion. Early imaging is critical if testis is non-palpable or if hematoma is significant." MCCQE1 Objectives (Surgery > 51-2: Genitourinary Trauma):
"Candidates must investigate testicular trauma using ultrasound to rule out rupture or torsion." Exploration (B) is done if ultrasound confirms rupture. Observation or discharge (A, E) without imaging risks missing serious injury.
337. Frage
A previously well 4-year-old boy is brought to your office by his mother. She is concerned by his behaviour.
Shortly after falling asleep, he awakens, screams loudly and cries. He appears frightened and does not respond to his mother's efforts to calm him. During these episodes, he appears agitated and flushed. After 15-20 minutes, he settles back to sleep. Physical examination is unremarkable. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Antwort: E
Begründung:
This presentation is characteristic of a non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep arousal disorder (sleep terror)
. MCCQE objectives highlight that sleep terrors typically occur in children aged 3-7 years and arise during the first third of the night , shortly after sleep onset, during deep NREM (slow-wave) sleep. Children abruptly awaken screaming, appear terrified, flushed, and autonomically aroused, and are inconsolable and minimally responsive to caregivers. Episodes usually last 10-20 minutes and resolve spontaneously, with the child returning to sleep and having no memory of the event the next morning.
Nightmares, in contrast, occur during REM sleep (later in the night); the child is awake, alert, consolable, and can recall the dream. Nocturnal seizures are typically brief, stereotyped, and may include tonic-clonic activity or a postictal state. Panic disorder occurs during wakefulness. Temper tantrums occur while awake and are behaviorally triggered.
Management is reassurance and ensuring safety; most children outgrow sleep terrors without intervention.
338. Frage
A 33-year-old man with severe bacterial meningitis is intubated and unresponsive in the Intensive Care Unit.
If he receives immediate treatment, his prognosis is excellent. If he does not, he will likely die. Three years ago, the patient had Huntington disease diagnosed, but he has been asymptomatic since then. His advance directive, which was made before this hospitalization, states that he should be allowed to die if he contracts a life-threatening illness. His parents demand that he be treated for the meningitis. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Antwort: B
Begründung:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
An advance directive is a legally binding document that outlines a competent person's preferences regarding future medical care. If the patient clearly stated a refusal of treatment in the event of a life-threatening condition, this directive must be followed, even if the patient is currently incapacitated and family disagrees.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Ethics and Law:
"Advance directives must be respected when valid, clear, and applicable. Substitute decision-makers cannot override them." MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 90-4: Informed Consent and Advance Directives):
"Candidates must apply valid advance directives to guide care for incapacitated patients." B (parents as SDMs) is incorrect if an advance directive exists. A and D are irrelevant-capacity has already been documented. C is unnecessary when an advance directive is clear.
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339. Frage
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