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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Topic 1: Dimensions of Care | - Chronic Care
|
| Topic 2: Physician Activities | - Management
|
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NEW QUESTION # 289
A 35-year-old man comes to your office with a history of headaches that last 1 hour and are relieved by 1000 mg of acetaminophen. These headaches, which started 6 months ago after he got his first job as a lawyer, occur regularly. The patient wants a computed tomography scan of his head to rule out a tumour. Physical examination reveals no abnormality. Review of systems does not contribute any positive findings. Which one of the following is the best management?
Answer: B
Explanation:
This patient's headache is consistent with tension-type or stress-related headache. The symptoms are mild, responsive to over-the-counter medications, and without red flags (neurologic signs, worsening pattern, nocturnal pain). Reassurance is appropriate.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Neurology, "Headache" Section:
"In the absence of red flags (e.g., sudden onset, focal deficits, age >50, worsening pattern), reassurance is the best course. Tension headaches are often related to stress and improve with lifestyle modification and simple analgesia." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 76-6: Neurologic Symptoms):
"Candidates should recognize benign headache patterns and avoid unnecessary investigations." CT head (B) is not indicated. Stronger analgesics (D) may cause rebound headache. Specialist or psychiatric referrals (A, E) are premature.
NEW QUESTION # 290
A 68-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, delirium tremens, and tobacco addiction comes to the Emergency Department with his daughter. She tells you that his behavior has become unmanageable and she feels he may require an increased level of care. His vital signs are:
Blood pressure: 162/105 mm Hg
Heart rate: 112/min, regular
Temperature: 37.8°C
On history, his daughter explains she had to confiscate a half-empty bottle of alcohol from his room yesterday. He is now convinced that there are bugs crawling all over him and he will not relax. He appears pale, sweaty, and shaky. His most recent blood glucose is 7.8 mmol/L (3.8-11.1). Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The presentation is consistent with acute alcohol withdrawal with delirium tremens: autonomic instability, agitation, visual hallucinations (formication), and recent alcohol reduction. This is a medical emergency requiring immediate treatment with benzodiazepines and supportive care.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, Substance Use Disorders:
"Delirium tremens is a life-threatening complication of alcohol withdrawal. Clinical features include agitation, hallucinations, tachycardia, hypertension, and diaphoresis. Management includes high-dose benzodiazepines and IV fluids." MCCQE1 Objectives - Psychiatry > Substance Use Disorders:
"Candidates must recognize and treat alcohol withdrawal delirium promptly with benzodiazepines and supportive measures." Antipsychotics (B) are not first-line in withdrawal states. Private interviews (A) and psychiatric consults (D) delay life-saving treatment.
NEW QUESTION # 291
A 66-year-old woman has a 3-month history of dry cough and weight loss. A new chest radiograph reveals a large 2-cm mass in her right upper lobe, which is consistent with carcinoma. You look at her previous films and realize that you had read her chest radiograph as normal 1 year ago, but now clearly see a faint opacity in precisely the same location as her current lesion. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Physicians must be transparent and honest in documentation. If a previous abnormality was missed, it must be acknowledged. The correct action is to comment on both the previous and current findings in your report and follow institutional disclosure policies.
Toronto Notes 2023 - ELOM, "Medical Error and Disclosure":
"Physicians must report and document prior missed findings honestly and provide full disclosure when reviewing comparative studies." MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 90-2: Accountability and Communication):
"Candidates must accurately document previous findings when reviewing comparative data, even if it reveals past oversight." Delaying reporting (C-E) or omitting prior findings (A) is unethical.
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NEW QUESTION # 292
A 60-year-old man presents to the office with concerns regarding a pruritic rash, which he has had for several years. He reports a "crawling" sensation on his skin. He is concerned that this rash may be caused by a parasite he may have picked up while serving in the military overseas. On examination, you note multiple crusted lesions on his forearms, neck, chest, scalp, and thighs. There is a complete sparing of the skin on his back. He brought a bottle with fibrous material of different colours that he picked from his wounds. He is otherwise healthy and reports no other symptoms except some chronic fatigue and insomnia related to the itching. Which one of the following treatments is the most appropriate?
Answer: B
Explanation:
This case describes classic signs of delusional parasitosis (also known as Morgellons syndrome).However, the presence of widespread crusted lesions raises suspicion for crusted scabies, particularly in older adults.
Crusted scabies may be misinterpreted as chronic dermatitis or psychocutaneous disorder. The most effective treatment is oral ivermectin.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Dermatology:
"Crusted scabies presents as widespread hyperkeratotic plaques with crusting. First-line treatment is oral ivermectin, often with topical permethrin." MCCQE1 Objectives (Medicine > Dermatology > 23-1):
"Candidates must recognize presentations of ectoparasitic infections, including scabies, and provide appropriate treatment." Permethrin (B) is for typical scabies, but crusted scabies often requires systemic ivermectin due to severity and spread.
NEW QUESTION # 293
A 15-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his parents because he fainted at home earlier in the day. They are recent immigrants, and there is a language barrier. Which one of the following is the best option for facilitating a thorough history-taking?
Answer: E
Explanation:
Effective communication is essential for accurate diagnosis, informed consent, and patient safety. MCCQE ELOM objectives emphasize the physician's responsibility to ensure clear, accurate, and confidential communication when language barriers exist. The best practice is to use a professional interpreter service (virtual or in-person) . Professional interpreters are trained to provide accurate translation, maintain confidentiality, and avoid introducing bias or omissions.
Using family members, community volunteers, or untrained staff (e.g., a laboratory technician) risks inaccuracies, breaches of confidentiality, and potential distortion of sensitive information. This is particularly important in adolescents, where confidential history (e.g., substance use, cardiac symptoms, sexual history) may be relevant. Simply speaking slowly or using simpler language does not overcome a true language barrier.
Professional interpreter services improve clinical outcomes, enhance patient understanding, and reduce medico-legal risk. Therefore, arranging a certified interpreter-either in person or via telephone/video-is the most appropriate approach.
NEW QUESTION # 294
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